UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 1995

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 1995 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 1995 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

A meteor is

1. a rapidly moving star
2. a piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space
3. part of a constellation
4. a comet without a tail

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• A meteor is a small rocky or metallic body (meteoroid) that enters the Earth’s atmosphere from outer space. Due to friction with atmospheric gases, it burns and produces a streak of light commonly called a “shooting star.

Answer: (b) a piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space

Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas?

1. Lopamudra
2. Gargi
3. Leelavati
4. Savitri

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The term Brahmavadini referred to women scholars in the Vedic period who possessed and expounded Vedic knowledge. Such women, also known as rishikas, composed hymns addressed to deities. Among the notable Brahmavadinis was Lopamudra, the wife of sage Agastya, to whom several hymns of the Rigveda are attributed, indicating her role as a composer of Vedic hymns.

Answer: (a) Lopamudra

The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000 metres. The reason for this variation in the same mountain range is that

1. eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas
2. eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and sea coast than western Himalayas
3. eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western Himalayas
4. eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the western Himalayan rocks

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The height of alpine vegetation (tree line) is mainly controlled by local climate—especially temperature, influenced by latitude and maritime effects. The Eastern Himalaya, being nearer the equator and strongly influenced by moisture from the Bay of Bengal, experiences warmer, more humid conditions, allowing the tree line to extend to higher altitudes. In contrast, the Western Himalaya is relatively colder and drier, so alpine conditions occur at lower elevations.

Answer: (b) The eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and the sea coast than the western Himalayas

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List I (Eras)

1. Vikrama era
2. Saka era
3. Gupta era
4. Kali era

List II (Reckoned from)

1. 3102 B.C.
2. 320 A.D.
3. 78 A.D.
4. 58 B.C.
5. 248 A.D.

Codes:

1. I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A
2. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
3. I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
4. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Vikrama era → 58 B.C.
• Saka era → 78 A.D.
• Gupta era → 320 A.D.
• Kali era → 3102 B.C.

Answer: (d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time, depending on whether they are east or west of the longitude passing through Greenwich:

1. Cuba
2. Greece
3. Iraq
4. Costa Rica
5. Japan

Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?

1. V, III, II, I, IV
2. II, IV, I, III, V
3. IV, I, III, II, V
4. III, V, IV, I, II

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Places east of Greenwich are ahead of GMT, while those to the west are behind it. Based on standard time offsets, Japan (GMT+9) is the most ahead, followed by Iraq (GMT+3) and Greece (GMT+2). Cuba (GMT−5) and Costa Rica (GMT−6) are west of GMT. Thus, from most ahead to most behind: Japan, Iraq, Greece, Cuba, Costa Rica.

Answer: (a) V, III, II, I, IV

Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?

1. The National Development Council
2. The Governors’ Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. The Interstate Council

Codes:

1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. III and IV
4. IV only

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The National Development Council (NDC), the Governors’ Conference, and the Zonal Councils are non-constitutional advisory bodies aimed at promoting coordination and cooperation between the Centre and the States. In contrast, the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body, established under Article 263 of the Constitution.

Answer: (a) I, II and III

Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world?

1. Antarctica
2. North America
3. Asia
4. South America

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Antarctica is the highest continent on Earth, with an average elevation of approximately 2,300 to 2,500 meters (about 7,500–8,200 feet). This extreme elevation is primarily due to the massive, thick ice sheet covering over 98% of the landmass, which averages over 2,000 meters in thickness.

Answer: (a) Antarctica

Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?

1. To stabilise agricultural prices.
2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through PDS.
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.

Codes:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• CACP recommends Minimum Support Prices (MSP) to balance farmers’ interests and consumer welfare. It aims at price stability and fair income to farmers, not maximum prices.

Answer: (a) I, II and III

Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State

Codes:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The proviso to Article 368 mandates ratification by at least one-half of the State Legislatures for constitutional amendments affecting specified matters, such as Articles 54 and 55 (election of the President), the representation of States in Parliament, and any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. In contrast, the abolition of a State Legislative Council is governed by Article 169 through a parliamentary law and is not considered a constitutional amendment under Article 368; hence, it does not require State ratification.

Answer: (a) I, II and III

Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period invariably show the deity with

1. eight hands
2. six hands
3. four hands
4. two hands

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Chola bronze sculptures of Nataraja depict Shiva in the cosmic dance pose (Ananda Tandava) with four hands — holding the damaru (drum), agni (fire), one in abhaya mudra, and one pointing to the raised foot symbolising liberation.

Answer: (c) four hands

Willy Willy is

1. a type of tree grown in temperate regions
2. a wind that blows in a desert
3. a tropical cyclone of the north-west Australia
4. a kind of common fish found near Lakshadweep islands

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Willy Willy” is the local name for tropical cyclones occurring off north-western Australia.

Answer: (c) a tropical cyclone of the north-west Australia

Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?

1. Regulation of consumer credit
2. Rationing of credit
3. Margin requirements
4. Variable cash reserve ratios

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Selective Credit Control (SCC) comprises qualitative tools used by the RBI to regulate credit flow to specific sectors or commodities. Its instruments include margin requirements, credit ceilings, and minimum interest rates on advances for sensitive goods—reflecting its targeted, sector-specific approach. In contrast, reserve ratios such as the CRR are quantitative tools applied uniformly across banks to control overall liquidity, not selective credit allocation; therefore, variable reserve ratios are not part of SCC.

Answer: (d) Variable cash reserve ratios

The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts, denoted

1. a fine variety of Indian muslin
2. ivory
3. damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
4. pepper

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Yavanapriya literally means “dear to the Yavanas (Greeks)” and referred to pepper, a major export item from India to the Mediterranean world

Answer: (d) Pepper

The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with

1. de-nationalisation of banks
2. electoral reforms
3. steps to put down insurgency in the North-east
4. the problem of the Chakmas

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) recommended significant electoral reforms, including measures to curb booth capturing and improve transparency.

Answer: (b) electoral reforms

Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world?

1. Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
2. Jama Masjid, Delhi
3. Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, Delhi
4. Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Gol Gumbaz in Bijapur (Vijayapura), Karnataka, is the 17^th-century mausoleum of Sultan Mohammad Adil Shah, renowned for its massive, unsupported dome—the second-largest in the world after St. Peter’s Basilica.

Answer: (d) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur

Bank Rate implies the rate of interest

1. paid by RBI on deposits of commercial banks
2. charged by banks on loans
3. payable on bonds
4. at which RBI discounts bills of exchange

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Bank Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to scheduled commercial banks and serves as the rate for discounting bills of exchange and providing advances. It is defined as the interest charged by the RBI on long-term loans to banks and is generally aligned with the repo rate.

Answer: (d) at which RBI discounts bills of exchange

Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution but followed as a convention?

1. Finance Minister must be from Lok Sabha
2. PM resigns if he loses majority in Lok Sabha
3. All parts of India must be represented in Council of Ministers
4. Speaker acts as President if both President and VP offices fall vacant

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Article 75 of the Constitution merely states that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President and does not prescribe a procedure mandating resignation upon losing a majority in the Lok Sabha. However, by parliamentary convention, the Prime Minister must enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha and is expected to resign or seek a dissolution of the Lok Sabha if that confidence is lost.

Answer: (b) PM resigns if he loses majority in Lok Sabha

Which one of the following was an emigree Communist Journal of M.N. Roy?

1. Kisan Sabha
2. The Worker
3. Vanguard
4. Anushilan

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• M.N. Roy founded and edited the émigré Communist journal Vanguard (often referred to as The Vanguard of Indian Independence) in 1922. It served as the organ of the émigré Communist Party of India and aimed to promote socialist ideas among Indians both abroad and in India.

Answer: (c) Vanguard

Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers

1. Gupta
2. Chola
3. Vijayanagar
4. Maratha

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Ashtapradhan was a council of eight ministers established by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in 1674 to govern the Maratha Empire. It was designed for administrative efficiency, with each minister heading a specific department, such as finance, foreign affairs, or defence, and reporting directly to the king.

Answer: (d) Maratha

The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge land mass called

1. Jurassic Land Mass
2. Aryavarta
3. Indiana
4. Gondwana Continent

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Indian subcontinent was originally part of the ancient southern supercontinent Gondwana (Gondwanaland). Geological evidence shows that Peninsular India formed from the breakup and northward drift of this landmass, which also included present-day South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica. India later collided with Eurasia to attain its present position.

Answer: (d) Gondwana Continent

The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low

1. temperature
2. velocity
3. pressure
4. density

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Clouds consist of tiny water droplets or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. They remain aloft because the droplets are extremely small and have very low terminal velocities, allowing gentle updrafts to keep them suspended. As a result, the cloud parcel (air plus droplets) often has a lower effective density than the surrounding air, creating buoyancy that prevents it from settling. Thus, low density, along with upward air currents, keeps clouds suspended.

Answer: (d) Density

Which mountain range is spread over only one State?

1. Aravalli
2. Satpura
3. Ajanta
4. Sahyadri

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Ajanta Range is a short hill range entirely confined to Maharashtra. In contrast, the Aravalli Range extends from Delhi to Gujarat, the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) passes through multiple states, and the Satpura Range also spans more than one state. Hence, Ajanta is the only range among the options that is limited to a single state.

Answer: (c) Ajanta

Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by

1. the Portuguese
2. the French
3. the Danish
4. the British

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• By the late 17th and 18th centuries, many Portuguese in India, after losing official commercial dominance, turned to piracy and plunder. Hooghly in Bengal became a key base for such activities, with Portuguese settlers launching raids across the Bay of Bengal.

Answer: (a) Portuguese

The ‘Modi script’ was employed in the documents of the

1. Wodeyars
2. Zamorins
3. Hoysalas
4. Marathas

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Modi script was a cursive administrative script used to write Marathi and was widely employed in Maratha records. Historical evidence shows that official correspondence, court proceedings, land records, and other administrative documents of the Maratha period—especially under the Peshwas—were written in Modi

Answer: (d) Marathas

Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in

1. Baluchistan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Kashmir

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Arakan Yoma (Rakhine or Arakan Mountains) is a mountain range located mainly in western Myanmar. It forms part of the upland system linking northeastern India with northern Myanmar and continues southward along the Myanmar mountain chain.

Answer: (b) Myanmar

The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by

1. Mahayana Buddhism
2. Hinayana Buddhism
3. Jainism
4. Lokayata

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Anuvratas (small/limited vows) are key ethical guidelines in Jainism tailored for householders (śrāvakas) to practice non-violence and detachment without renouncing worldly life, unlike the strict Mahāvratas (major vows) for ascetics.

Answer: (c) Jainism

In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi started the Civil Disobedience Movement from

1. Sevagram
2. Dandi
3. Sabarmati
4. Wardha

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mahatma Gandhi began the Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram; it culminated at Dandi.

Answer: (c) Sabarmati

The radical wing of the Congress founded the ‘Independence for India League’ in opposition to

1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
2. Home Rule Movement
3. Nehru Report
4. Montford Reforms

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Independence for India League was formed by the radical younger leaders of the Congress who opposed the Nehru Report’s acceptance of dominion status. Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhash Bose, and others viewed dominion status as inadequate and a retreat from the goal of full freedom. In protest, they established the League to demand complete independence (Purna Swaraj) instead of dominion status.

Answer: (c) Nehru Report

Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is

1. crude heroin
2. crude cocaine
3. uranium oxide
4. unrefined gold

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Yellowcake is a concentrated powder form of uranium oxide (U₃O₈), used in nuclear fuel production.

Answer: (c) Uranium Oxide

Which one of the following hormones contains iodine?

1. Thyroxine
2. Testosterone
3. Insulin
4. Adrenaline

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that contains four atoms of iodine per molecule.

Answer: (a) Thyroxine

The only snake that builds a nest is

1. Chain viper
2. King Cobra
3. Krait
4. Saw scaled viper

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The king cobra (Ophiophagus hannah) is the only known snake species that constructs an elaborate, above-ground nest for its eggs. Using its body to gather leaves and twigs, the female builds a nest, lays up to 50 eggs, and guards it aggressively until they hatch, usually over 2–3 months.

Answer: (b) King Cobra

Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because

1. controlled by low temperature
2. sensitive to moon phases
3. insects eat flowers during day
4. desert insects are active during night

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Most desert plants bloom at night to align with nocturnal pollinators and to reduce heat stress and water loss during the day. Since many desert pollinators—such as insects and bats—are active at night to avoid extreme daytime temperatures, flowering at night enhances pollination and reproductive success. Features like pale flowers, strong fragrance, and nectar production further support night-time pollination in arid environments.

Answer: (d) desert insects are active during night

A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the

1. lack of antigen
2. lack of antibodies
3. lack of both antigens and antibodies
4. presence of antibodies

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• A person with AB blood group is called a universal recipient because their plasma does not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies. As a result, their immune system does not react against red blood cells from any ABO group (A, B, AB, or O), allowing them to receive blood from any of these type.

Answer: (b) lack of antibodies

Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?

1. Diesel
2. Coal
3. Hydrogen
4. Kerosene

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Hydrogen, when used as fuel, produces water as the main by-product, making it the cleanest among the options

Answer: (c) Hydrogen

The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that

1. no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor
2. the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled
3. the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled
4. no chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• A nuclear reactor sustains a fission chain reaction in a controlled manner, regulating the rate of energy release through moderators and control rods that absorb neutrons. It relies on delayed neutrons and built-in safety systems to maintain stable, steady power generation. In contrast, an atomic (fission) bomb is designed for an uncontrolled, rapid chain reaction, achieving a supercritical state that releases enormous energy within a fraction of a second, without mechanisms to regulate or moderate the reaction.

Answer: (b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled

An air bubble in water will act like a

1. convex mirror
2. convex lens
3. concave mirror
4. concave lens

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• An air bubble in water has a lower refractive index than the surrounding medium. It diverges light rays and behaves like a concave lens.

Answer: (d) Concave lens

Cryogenic engines find applications in

1. sub-marine propulsion
2. frost-free refrigerators
3. rocket technology
4. researches in superconductivity

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Cryogenic engines use super-cooled liquid fuels (like liquid hydrogen and oxygen) and are widely used in space launch vehicles.

Answer: (c) Rocket Technology

Optical fibre works on the principle of

1. total internal reflection
2. refraction
3. scattering
4. interference

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Optical fibres transmit light by confining it within a high–refractive-index core surrounded by a lower-index cladding. When light strikes the core–cladding boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle, it undergoes total internal reflection and continues to travel along the fibre with minimal loss. Thus, light propagation in optical fibres occurs through repeated total internal reflection, not simple refraction or scattering.

Answer: (a) total internal reflection

Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth?

1. Aryabhata
2. Varahamihira
3. Buddha Gupta
4. Brahmagupta

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Brahmagupta (7th century) stated that objects fall toward the Earth due to a force of attraction, anticipating the concept later formalized by Newton.

Answer: (d) Brahmagupta

In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta Period women and sudras speak

1. Sanskrit
2. Prakrit
3. Pali
4. Sauraseni

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In Sanskrit plays of the Gupta period, women and Shudras generally spoke in Prakrit, while Sanskrit was primarily used by elite male characters.

Answer: (b) Prakrit

The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are

1. the three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
2. the three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
3. the three main styles of Indian temple architecture
4. the three main musical gharanas prevalent in India

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara refer to the major architectural styles of Indian temples. The Nagara style developed in northern India and is marked by curvilinear shikharas, the Dravida style flourished in southern India with pyramid-shaped vimanas and prominent gopurams, while the Vesara style evolved in the Deccan region as a blend of Nagara and Dravida features.

Answer: (c) the three main styles of Indian temple architecture

In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-president of the Executive Council was

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
3. C. Rajagopalachari
4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Interim Government was formed in September 1946 under the provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan as a transitional government before India’s independence. Although the Viceroy remained the formal head, Jawaharlal Nehru, as the Vice-President of the Executive Council, functioned effectively as the head of the government. He also held the External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations portfolio.

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

The Mughal School of Painting formed the spinal column of the various schools of Indian miniature art. Which one of the following painting styles was not affected by Mughal painting?

1. Pahari
2. Rajasthani
3. Kangra
4. Kalighata

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Mughal School of Painting significantly influenced several regional schools of Indian miniature painting, including the Pahari, Rajasthani, and Kangra styles, which adopted elements such as refined brushwork, naturalism, and courtly themes. However, the Kalighata style, which developed in 19th-century Bengal around the Kalighat temple in Kolkata, evolved independently as a popular folk art tradition and was not shaped by Mughal painting traditions.

Answer: (d) Kalighata

Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India?

1. Vijnanesvara
2. Hemadri
3. Rajasekhara
4. Jimutavahana

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I and IV only

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Vijnaneshwara was a prominent jurist of the first millennium CE India. His treatise, the Mitakshara, dealt with inheritance, and is one of the most influential legal treatises in Hindu law.
• Hemadri was a medieval scholar and jurist known for works on Dharmashastra and Ayurveda (specifically the Āyurveda Rasāyan commentary), as well as the encyclopedic Chaturvarga Chintāmaṇi. He was a 13th-century minister for the Yadava dynasty in Devagiri, Maharashtra, and is credited with developing the Hemadpanti temple architecture style.
• Rajashekhara was an eminent Sanskrit poet, dramatist and critic. He was court poet of the Gurjara Pratiharas.He wrote Kavyamimamsa between 880 and 920 CE. The work is essentially a practical guide for poets that explains the elements and composition of a good poem. The fame of Rajashekhara rests firmly on his play Karpuramanjari, written in Sauraseni Prakrit.
• Jimutavahana was a famous jurist from Bengal and the author of the Dayabhaga, an influential text on Hindu law.

Answer: (c) I, II and IV

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor under Article 156 of the Constitution of India:

1. A Governor cannot be removed from office before the completion of the five-year term.
2. A Governor cannot continue in office beyond a period of five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are incorrect

• Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President and also mentions a term of five years. This means that a Governor can be removed by the President before the completion of the five-year term; therefore, Statement I is incorrect. Further, a Governor may continue in office even after the expiry of five years until a successor assumes charge, making Statement II also incorrect.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is possible by means of

1. Jnana
2. Bhakti
3. Yoga
4. Karma

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• According to the Mimamsa school, the Vedas contain the eternal truth. A person will enjoy the bliss of heaven so long as his accumulated acts of virtue last. When his accumulated virtues are exhausted, he will return to earth, but if he attains salvation, he will be completely free from the cycle of birth and death. To attain salvation, the Mimamsa school strongly recommended the performance of Vedic sacrifices, which needed the services of priests and legitimised the social distance between the various varnas.

Answer: (d) Karma

The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Thakkar Bappa
3. Jyotiba Phule
4. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The term is thought to have been coined by the Gandhian activist Thakkar Bapa.

Answer: (b) Thakkar Bappa

What is the correct sequence of the following events?

1. The Lucknow Pact
2. The Introduction of Dyarchy
3. The Rowlatt Act
4. The Partition of Bengal

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. I, III, II, IV
2. IV, I, III, II
3. I, II, III, IV
4. IV, III, II, I

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The correct chronological sequence is:
  • Partition of Bengal – 1905
  • Lucknow Pact – 1916
  • Rowlatt Act – 1919
  • Introduction of Dyarchy under the Government of India Act, 1919 – implemented in 1921.

Answer: (b) IV, I, III, II

The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the Indian freedom movement in:

1. Bombay Karnataka
2. Punjab
3. East Bengal
4. The Madras Presidency

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The 1908 Barrah Dacoity was a major revolutionary action in East Bengal (modern-day Bangladesh) planned by Pulin Behari Das and the Dhaka Anushilan Samiti to fund the independence movement.

Answer: (c) Easy Bengal

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Battle of Buxar — Mir Jafar vs. Clive
2. Battle of Wandiwash — French vs. East India Company
3. Battle of Chilianwala — Dalhousie vs. Marathas
4. Battle of Kharda — Nizam vs. East India Company

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Battle of Wandiwash (1760) was fought between the French forces and the British East India Company during the Carnatic Wars, leading to the decline of French power in India.
• Battle of Buxar (1764) was fought between the British East India Company led by Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daula, and Shah Alam II, not Mir Jafar vs. Clive.
• Battle of Chilianwala (1849) was fought during the Second Anglo-Sikh War, not between Dalhousie and the Marathas.
• Battle of Kharda (1795) was fought between the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas, not the East India Company.

Answer: (b) Battle of Wandiwash — French vs. East India Company