UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) – 1998

Practising UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQs) is one of the most effective ways to understand the evolving pattern, difficulty level, and demand of the Civil Services Examination.

The UPSC CSE Prelims 1998 PYQs provided by PMF IAS help aspirants analyse the exam trend with a clear answer key and detailed explanations. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE 2027, 2028, or beyond, solving the UPSC Prelims 1998 question paper with answers and explanations will help you build accuracy, improve elimination skills, and develop a better understanding of UPSC’s question-framing approach.

Some time back, the Government of India decided to delicense ‘white goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include

1. stainless steel and aluminium utensils
2. milk and milk products
3. items purchased for conspicuous consumption
4. soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The term ‘white goods’ refers to consumer durable household appliances, traditionally finished in white enamel. Examples include refrigerators, washing machines, air conditioners, microwave ovens, and similar household appliances.

Answer: (c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption

‘MERCOSUR’ consists of group of countries of

1. Africa
2. Asia
3. Latin America
4. South East Asia

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Mercosur, or the Southern Common Market, is a South American trade bloc created to promote free trade and economic integration.
• Framework: It was established under the Treaty of Asunción (1991). The Protocol of Ouro Preto (1994) granted it legal status and defined it as a customs union.
• Membership: The bloc includes five full members (Argentina, Bolivia, Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay) and six associate members.
• Venezuela’s membership has been suspended indefinitely since 2016 due to non-compliance.
• Economic Significance: Mercosur contributes over 60% of South America’s GDP, making it among the largest trade blocs after the EU, USMCA, and ASEAN.
• Trade Agreement: India signed a Preferential Trade Agreement with Mercosur in 2004 to expand market access, and it came into effect in 2009.
• India-Mercosur trade reached $17.9 billion in 2024-25, with Brazil accounting for $12.19 billion.

Answer: (c) Latin America

A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if

1. he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income
2. he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income
3. he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items
4. he is able to locate new sources of income

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In economics, consumer equilibrium refers to a situation where the consumer maximises satisfaction (utility) given his limited income and prices of goods. At equilibrium:
  • The consumer has no desire to change the combination of goods he is consuming.
  • He achieves maximum satisfaction possible within his budget constraint.

Answer: (a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income

The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of

1. producer
2. global economy
3. consumer
4. middle-man

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Supply-side economics focuses on increasing production and economic growth by encouraging producers.

Answer: (a) Producer

Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group?

1. Marathi
2. Ladakhi
3. Khasi
4. Tamil

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Khasi, spoken mainly in Meghalaya, belongs to the Austroasiatic (Austric) language family.

Answer: (c) Khasi

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): According to Asoka’s edicts social harmony among the people was more important than religious devotion.
2. Reason (R): He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Ashoka, through his edicts, emphasised Dhamma as a code of ethical conduct aimed at promoting social harmony, tolerance, compassion, and mutual respect among different sects and communities. He discouraged sectarian conflict and stressed humane behaviour over ritualistic religious practices. Thus, the Assertion is true. The Reason is also true because Ashoka focused on principles such as fairness, non-violence, and welfare rather than promoting any one religion aggressively. This emphasis on equity and coexistence explains why social harmony was given greater importance.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of the National Movement.
2. Reason (R): There was a predominant element of anti-imperialism in both the National and Khilafat Movements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Khilafat Movement mobilised large numbers of Muslims, especially urban Muslims.
• It brought them into active participation in the national struggle.
• Reason is true and explains the assertion:
  • Both movements opposed British imperialism.
  • Mahatma Gandhi supported the Khilafat Movement and linked it with the Non-Cooperation Movement.
  • This created Hindu-Muslim unity and strengthened the national movement.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates’ role in the Indian freedom movement.
2. Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the Extremists from the Moderates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Assertion is false: Partition of Bengal (1905) weakened Moderates but did not end their role completely. Moderates continued to be active and dominated Congress after the Surat split (1907).
• Reason is true: The Surat Session (1907) led to a split between Moderates and Extremists. Moderates retained control of Congress temporarily.

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals.
2. Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Indian National Congress rejected the Cripps proposals because they were inadequate and unclear, as they offered only dominion status, allowed provinces to opt out, included princely-state nominees, and did not provide for immediate transfer of power or meaningful control over defence.
• The Cripps Mission consisted of British cabinet members led by Sir Stafford Cripps, without Indian representation. However, R is not the correct explanation of A, because the Congress rejected the proposals mainly due to their constitutional and political shortcomings, not because the mission lacked Indian members.

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkh, Badakhshan and Qandahar.
2. Reason (R): The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the Middle East was a marvellous success.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• During Shah Jahan’s reign, his eldest son Dara Shikoh led military expeditions on the northwestern frontier, including the 1653 campaign to recapture Qandahar, and was involved in planning operations in Balkh and Badakhshan. The Mughal campaigns in Central Asia and Qandahar were unsuccessful. Though Balkh and Badakhshan were briefly occupied, they were abandoned due to harsh conditions and resistance, and repeated attempts to recover Qandahar from the Safavids failed.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Consider the following statements

1. Assertion (A): Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
2. Reason (R): Formic acid is an organic acid.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Formic acid is a stronger acid than Acetic acid because the methyl group (CH 3 ​ ) in acetic acid exerts an electron-releasing (+I) effect, which decreases the tendency to release H + ions. Formic acid lacks such an electron-donating group, making it comparatively stronger. The Reason is true because formic acid is indeed an organic acid, but this does not explain why it is stronger than acetic acid.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it.
2. Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• When electric current flows through a metal wire, some electrical energy is converted into heat due to resistance, causing the wire’s temperature to rise (Joule heating).
• Reason is false: heat is not produced by collisions between metal atoms. It occurs because moving electrons collide with lattice ions, transferring energy to the lattice and increasing its vibrational energy, which raises the temperature.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct?

1. Both of them are of plant origin
2. Both of them are polymers
3. Both of them give colour with iodine
4. Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Starch gives a characteristic blue–black colour with iodine, which is used to detect its presence (for example, rice turning blue–black in the iodine test). Both starch and cellulose are plant polysaccharides made of glucose units. However, only starch shows this colour change because iodine forms a complex with the helical amylose component of starch. Cellulose does not form this complex and therefore does not produce a blue–black colour with iodine.

Answer: (c) Both of them give colour with iodine

One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between

1. Earth and the Sun
2. Earth and the Moon
3. Jupiter and the Sun
4. Pluto and the Sun

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• One Astronomical Unit (AU) is defined as the average distance between Earth and the Sun. Its value is approximately: 1 AU = 149.6 million km. It is used as a standard unit to measure distances within the solar system.

Answer: (a) Earth and Sun

The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called

1. aerobic respiration
2. anaerobic respiration
3. glycolysis
4. hydrolysis

Explanation

• Aerobic respiration is the process in which glucose is completely broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and a large amount of energy (ATP). Glycolysis is only the first stage of glucose breakdown, while anaerobic respiration occurs without oxygen and results in incomplete breakdown of glucose. Hydrolysis refers to the chemical breakdown of substances using water.

Answer: (a) aerobic respiration

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

1. Theory of Mutation
2. Theory of Evolution
3. One gene one enzyme hypothesis
4. Operon concept

List II

1. Beadle and Tatum
2. Jacob and Monod
3. Darwin
4. De Vries

Codes:

a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

d) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Hugo de Vries proposed the Theory of Mutation, stating that evolution occurs through sudden heritable changes called mutations rather than only gradual variations. Charles Darwin explained the Theory of Evolution through natural selection, according to which organisms with favourable traits survive and reproduce. George Beadle and Edward Tatum proposed the one gene–one enzyme hypothesis, establishing that each gene controls the production of a specific enzyme. François Jacob and Jacques Monod introduced the operon concept, explaining gene regulation in bacteria through examples such as the lac operon in E. coli.

Answer: (b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to

1. decrease in haemoglobin level
2. rheumatic heart disease
3. decrease in WBC
4. non-clotting of blood

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Hemophilia is a hereditary genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly. It is caused by the deficiency of specific clotting factors — Factor VIII in Haemophilia A and Factor IX in Haemophilia B. Due to the absence or reduced level of these clotting factors, blood clotting becomes impaired, and even minor injuries can result in prolonged or excessive bleeding.

Answer: (d) non-clotting of blood

Consider the following statements about acetylene:

1. It is used in welding industry.
2. It is raw material for preparing plastics.
3. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water.

Of these statements:

1. I and II are correct
2. I and III are correct
3. II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Acetylene is widely used in oxy-acetylene welding and cutting because it produces a very high-temperature flame capable of melting metals. It also serves as an important chemical feedstock for manufacturing organic intermediates such as vinyl chloride, which is used to produce PVC and other plastics. Industrially, acetylene is obtained by the hydrolysis of calcium carbide (CaC₂ + 2H₂O → C₂H₂ + Ca(OH)₂), not from silicon carbide; therefore, statement III is incorrect, and only statements I and II are correct.

Answer: (a) I and II are correct

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Special Characteristic)

1. Farthest planet from the sun
2. Largest planet of the solar system
3. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system
4. Planet nearest to the Sun

List II (Name of Planet)

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Jupiter
4. Pluto
5. Saturn

Codes:

1. I-B, II-C, III-E, IV-A
2. I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-B
3. I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
4. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• In the Solar System, Pluto is the farthest among the given planetary bodies from the Sun, Jupiter is the largest planet, Venus is the second planet from the Sun, and Mercury is the nearest planet to the Sun. Hence, the correct matching is I-D, II-C, III-B, and IV-A.

Answer: (d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams?

1. Zinc
2. Copper
3. Magnesium
4. Iron

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• An amalgam is an alloy formed by the combination of a metal with mercury. Metals such as zinc, copper, and magnesium can form amalgams with mercury, whereas Iron does not readily form amalgams because mercury does not effectively wet or react with its surface.

Answer: (d) Iron

Match List I with List II:

List I (Disease)

1. Malaria
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Ringworm

List II (Organism)

1. Fungi
2. Bacteria
3. Virus
4. Protozoan

Codes:

1. I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
2. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
3. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
4. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus Plasmodium. Poliomyelitis is caused by the poliovirus. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Ringworm is a fungal infection affecting the skin.

Answer: (a) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Consider the following statements regarding asteroids:

1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.
2. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km.
3. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

Of these statements:

1. I, II and III are correct
2. II and III are correct
3. I and II are correct
4. I and III are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct

• Asteroids are small rocky bodies revolving around the Sun, mostly found in the asteroid belt.

Statement II is correct

• Most asteroids are small, but some large ones like Ceres have diameters close to 1000 km.

Statement III is incorrect

• The asteroid belt lies between Mars and Jupiter, not Jupiter and Saturn.

Answer: (c) I and II are correct

The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is

1. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
2. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
3. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
4. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The lowest layer is the troposphere, where weather phenomena occur, followed by the stratosphere containing the ozone layer. Above it lies the mesosphere, and then the ionosphere, which contains ionised particles important for radio communication. Hence, the correct upward sequence is Troposphere → Stratosphere → Mesosphere → Ionosphere.

Answer: (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?

1. It is connected in parallel with the main switch
2. It is made mainly from silver alloys
3. It must have a low melting point
4. It must have a very high resistance

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• A fuse protects electrical circuits from excess current. It is connected in series, not parallel.
• It should melt quickly when excess current flows. Therefore, it must have a low melting point.

Answer: (c) It must have a low melting point

Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?

1. Cobalt
2. Nickel
3. Zirconium
4. Tungsten

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Zirconium is widely used in the construction of nuclear reactors because it has high resistance to corrosion and a very low absorption cross-section for neutrons, making it suitable for cladding fuel rods in nuclear reactors. Cobalt, nickel, and tungsten are used in various industrial applications but are not the primary material used for this purpose in reactors.

Answer: (c) Zirconium

Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?

1. Bhagat Singh
2. Lala Hardayal
3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
4. V. D. Savarkar

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Ghadar Party grew out of the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association founded in San Francisco in 1913 by Lala Hardayal; this organization was popularly called the Ghadar Party and its journal Ghadar began publication from San Francisco on November 1, 1913. While Sohan Singh Bhakna served as the association’s president, contemporary sources and party rosters list Lala Hardayal as the key founding leader and organizer (often recorded as general secretary/editor of the Ghadar paper), confirming his leadership role in the movement’s inception and direction.

Answer: (b) Lala Hardayal

The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of

1. Chlorine
2. Ozone
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Water pollution in rivers is commonly measured in terms of Dissolved Oxygen (DO). Dissolved oxygen Answer: (d) Oxygen

The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” This statement is attributed to

1. Lord Dufferin
2. Lord Curzon
3. Lord Lytton
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• In a letter to the British Secretary of State in 1900, Curzon wrote, “(The Indian National) Congress is tottering to its fall, and one of my greatest ambitions while in India is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” He became the youngest Viceroy of India in 1899 at age 39, and remained in office until his resignation in 1905.

Answer: (b) Lord Curzon

Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are

1. pure
2. rich in proteins
3. environment friendly
4. economically viable

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ecomark (or Eco Label) is a voluntary labelling system for consumer products that meet Indian environmental criteria and quality standards.

Answer: (c) environment Friendly

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Theodore Beck — Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College
2. Ilbert Bill — Ripon
3. Pherozeshah Mehta — Indian National Congress
4. Badruddin Tyabji — Muslim League

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and III

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Theodore Beck was associated with the Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College as its principal, so Pair I is correct. The Ilbert Bill Controversy took place during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon, making Pair II correct. Pherozeshah Mehta was an important leader of the Indian National Congress, so Pair III is also correct. However, Badruddin Tyabji was associated with the Indian National Congress and served as its president, not with the All-India Muslim League.

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?

1. Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them preference over imported commodities
2. Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways
3. Providing national education according to the requirements of the country
4. Organising coups against the British empire through military revolt

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Extremists in the early national movement opposed the Moderates’ “mendicant policy” of petitions and appeals. Leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai demanded Swaraj and favoured assertive, direct action over purely constitutional methods.
• They promoted boycott, Swadeshi and national education to mobilise the masses, marking a shift towards active and confrontational politics for self-government.

Answer: (b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways

The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was

1. Iltutmish
2. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
3. Feroz Shah Tughlaq
4. Sikandar Lodi

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Feroz Shah Tughlaq (r. 1351–1388) is known for constructing the largest canal network among the Delhi Sultans. The longest canal was about 200 kilometres, which took off from the river Sutlej to Hansi. Another canal was between Yamuna and Hissar. These and other canals were meant for irrigation and water to the new towns he developed.

Answer: (c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq

Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant

1. extra payment made to the nobles
2. revenue assigned in lieu of salary
3. excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars
4. illegal exactions extracted from the peasants

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Fawazil was the surplus revenue collected by Iqtadars beyond their salary. This extra amount had to be deposited into the state treasury.

Answer: (c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars

Which one of the following events was characterised by Montague as ‘Preventive Murder’?

1. Killing of INA activists
2. Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh
3. Shooting of the Mahatma
4. Shooting of Curzon-Wythe

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Edwin Samuel Montagu strongly criticised Reginald Dyer for the firing at Jallianwala Bagh massacre on 13 April 1919. By calling it “preventive murder,” he implied that the shooting was not required for dispersing the crowd or ensuring immediate safety, but was a deliberate and brutal act meant to terrorise people and deter future unrest.

Answer: (b) Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh

What is the correct sequence of the following events?

1. The August Offer
2. The I.N.A. trial
3. The Quit India Movement
4. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt

Codes:

1. I, III, II, IV
2. III, I, II, IV
3. I, III, IV, II
4. III, I, IV, II

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The correct sequence is: August Offer → Quit India Movement → Indian National Army Trials → Royal Indian Navy Mutiny. The August Offer was announced by the British in 1940 during World War II. It was followed by the Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942. After the war, the INA trials of officers of the Indian National Army were held in 1945 at the Red Fort. Finally, the Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt took place in 1946

Answer: (a) I, III, II, IV

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): Gandhi stopped the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922.
2. Reason (R): Violence at Chauri-Chaura led him to stop the movement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Non–Cooperation Movement (1920–22), launched by Mahatma Gandhi, aimed at peaceful non-violent resistance against British rule. On 5 February 1922, at Chauri-Chaura (Gorakhpur district, U.P.), a violent clash occurred in which an angry mob set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen. Since Gandhi firmly believed in non-violence (Ahimsa) as the foundation of the movement, he felt the country was not yet ready for disciplined non-violent struggle. Therefore, he suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Lothal: Ancient dockyard
2. Sarnath: First Sermon of Buddha
3. Rajgir: Lion capital of Asoka
4. Nalanda: Great seat of Buddhist learning

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. I and II

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Lothal is correctly matched with the ancient dockyard of the Indus Valley Civilization. Sarnath is the place where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon after attaining enlightenment. Nalanda was a renowned ancient centre of Buddhist learning and education. However, the famous Lion Capital of Ashoka is associated with Sarnath, not Rajgir.

Answer: (c) I, II and IV

When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of

1. Foreign Affairs
2. Home
3. Finance
4. Defence

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In October 1946, members of the All-India Muslim League joined the Interim Government formed under Jawaharlal Nehru. Liaquat Ali Khan was given the Finance portfolio.

Answer: (c) Finance

Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve food grains to be utilised during the crises in the country?

1. Sohagaura Copper Plate
2. Rummindei Pillar Edict
3. Prayaga-Prasasti
4. Mehrauli Iron Pillar Inscription

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Sohgaura copper-plate inscription (4th–3rd century BCE, in Uttar Pradesh) records the setting up of a state granary to store food grains during times of famine, making it the earliest known royal order on foodgrain preservation in ancient India. It is a Maurya record that mentions famine relief efforts.

Answer: (a) Sohagaura Copper Plate

Consider the following:

1. Tughlaqabad Fort
2. Lodi Gardens
3. Qutub Minar
4. Fatehpur Sikri

The correct chronological order in which they were built is:

1. III, I, IV, II
2. III, I, II, IV
3. I, III, II, IV
4. I, III, IV, II

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Qutub Minar was the earliest among these monuments, begun by Qutb ud-Din Aibak in the late 12th century. Tughlaqabad Fort was built later in the 14th century by Ghiyas ud din Tughlaq. Lodi Gardens contains tombs and structures of the Lodi period, mainly from the 15th century. Fatehpur Sikri was constructed by Akbar in the 16th century.

Answer: (b) III, I, II, IV

The concept of Eight-fold Path forms the theme of

1. Dipavamsa
2. Divyavadana
3. Mahaparinibbana Sutta
4. Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Eight-fold Path (Ashtangika Marga) was first expounded by Gautama Buddha in his first sermon at Sarnath. That sermon is recorded in the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta (Dharma Chakra Pravartana Sutta).

Answer: (d) Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta

The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country mainly because

1. the principle of Two-Nation theory was then acceptable to them
2. it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was helpless in this regard
3. they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots
4. India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• By 1946–47, communal violence had intensified after Direct Action Day and subsequent riots. Congress leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel accepted Partition as a practical solution to prevent prolonged civil war and bloodshed.

Answer: (c) they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots

At the time of India’s Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was

1. a member of Congress Working Committee
2. not a member of the Congress
3. the President of the Congress
4. the General Secretary of the Congress

Explanation

Option (b is correct

• Mahatma Gandhi had resigned from the primary membership of the Indian National Congress in 1934. Though he remained the moral guide of the national movement, he held no official position in the Congress at the time of Independence in 1947.

Answer: (b) not a member of the Congress

Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellate. These blooms are called

1. red tides
2. sea tides
3. black tides
4. sea flowers

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Certain dinoflagellates multiply rapidly under favourable conditions, producing a phenomenon called red tides. These blooms often discolour water (usually reddish or brownish) and may release toxins harmful to marine life and humans.

Answer: (a) red tides

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the Anti-Defection Act?

1. Second Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Eighth Schedule
4. Tenth Schedule

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Anti-Defection provisions were added to the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, inserting the Tenth Schedule, which deals with disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.

Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule

The member of Shivaji’s Ashta Pradhana who looked after foreign affairs was

1. Peshwa
2. Sachiv
3. Pandit Rao
4. Sumant

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Sumant served as the foreign Minister, handling diplomatic relations, treaties, and the reception of foreign

Answer: (d) Sumant

Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in

1. Rajasthan
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Panchayati Raj system was first inaugurated on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur in Rajasthan, following the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957).

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called

1. Tipis
2. Barkhans
3. Phoomdis
4. Izba

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Loktak Lake is famous for floating biomass formations known as phoomdis. These are masses of vegetation, soil, and organic matter at various stages of decomposition, floating on the lake surface.

Answer: (c) Phoomdis

The Asokan major rock edicts, which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom, include rock edicts

1. I and X
2. I and XI
3. II and XIII
4. II and XIV

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Ashoka’s Major Rock Edict II mentions southern polities such as the Pandyas, Satyaputras and Keralaputras, clearly referring to kingdoms of the Tamil/Sangam region. Major Rock Edict XIII also lists the Cholas and Pandyas while describing the spread of his dhamma. These references link the edicts directly to Sangam-era rulers and regions.

Answer: (c) II and XIII

Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because

1. there was no Indian Member in the Commission
2. it supported the Muslim League
3. Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj
4. there were differences among the members

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Simon Commission was appointed by the British Government to review constitutional reforms. It had no Indian members, which led to nationwide protests under the slogan “Simon Go Back.” Hence, it was boycotted.

Answer: (a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission

What is the correct sequence of the following events?

1. Tilak’s Home Rule League
2. Komagata Maru Incident
3. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrival in India

Codes:

1. I, II, III
2. III, II, I
3. II, I, III
4. II, III, I

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Komagata Maru Incident occurred in 1914 when Indian passengers aboard the Japanese ship Komagata Maru were denied entry into Canada and later faced repression on returning to India. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in January 1915. Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Home Rule League movement in 1916.

Answer: (d) II, III, I

The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

1. both a real and a nominal executive
2. a system of collective responsibility
3. bicameral legislature
4. the system of judicial review

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• India follows the parliamentary system on the British model with a nominal executive (President) and real executive (Prime Minister & Council of Ministers), collective responsibility, and bicameralism — all of which exist in Britain too. However, unlike Britain (where Parliament is supreme), India has judicial review, where courts can strike down unconstitutional laws. This power is vested in the Supreme Court and High Courts. Thus, this is a key difference

Answer: (d) the system of judicial review

Which one of the following east-flowing rivers of India has a rift valley due to down-warping?

1. Damodar
2. Mahanadi
3. Sone
4. Yamuna

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• The Damodar River flows through the Chota Nagpur Plateau in a distinct rift valley. Unlike the west-flowing Narmada River and Tapi River, the Damodar is an east-flowing river. It flows through a structural trough formed by crustal subsidence during the Gondwana period.

Answer: (a) Damodar

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Mrichchhakatika — Shudraka
2. Buddhacharita — Vasuvandhu
3. Mudrarakshasa — Vishakhadatta
4. Harshacharita — Banabhatta

Codes:

1. I, II, III and IV
2. I, III and IV
3. I and IV
4. II and III

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Mrichchhakatika was written by Shudraka, Mudrarakshasa by Vishakhadatta, and Harshacharita by Banabhatta. Buddhacharita was written by Ashvaghosha, not Vasubandhu.

Answer: (b) I, III and IV

Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because

1. Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time
2. they had renounced the policy of war and violence
3. caste-ridden Hinduism did not attract them
4. Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Indo-Greeks (e.g., Menander I), Kushanas (e.g., Kanishka), and Shakas found Buddhism more socially inclusive. Unlike Brahmanical Hinduism, which had rigid caste barriers, Buddhism was more open and egalitarian, making it easier for foreign rulers and settlers to integrate into Indian society.

Answer: (d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of the

1. influence of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan
2. anti-Muslim attitude of extremist leaders
3. indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
4. Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Extremist leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak often invoked symbols from Hindu history and revivalist themes (e.g., Ganapati and Shivaji festivals). This emphasis on Hindu cultural revival made many Muslims feel excluded, reducing their attraction toward the Extremist movement.

Answer: (d) Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past

The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called

1. SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
2. SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)
3. CBR (Central Bank Reserve)
4. CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is the minimum percentage of deposits that banks must maintain in the form of liquid assets such as cash, gold, or government securities. It is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

Answer: (b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Minerals)

1. Graphite
2. Lead
3. Salt
4. Silver

List II (Mining Area)

1. Bellary
2. Didwana
3. Rampa
4. Zawar

Codes:

1. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
2. I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
3. I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
4. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The correct answer is I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C. Graphite is associated with Bellary, lead with Zawar Mines, salt with Didwana Salt Lake, and silver with Rampa.

Answer: (b) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India?

1. Gold coins
2. Punch-marked silver coins
3. Iron plough
4. Urban culture

Codes:

1. III, IV, I, II
2. III, IV, II, I
3. IV, III, I, II
4. IV, III, II, I

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• Urban culture appeared first in India with the rise of the Indus Valley Civilization during the third millennium BCE. Iron technology, including the iron plough, emerged later in the Early Iron Age. Punch-marked silver coins appeared during the Mahajanapada period around the 6th century BCE, while gold coins became prominent much later, especially during the Kushana and Gupta periods.

Answer: (d) IV, III, II, I

The loss of Qandahar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from the view point of

1. natural resources
2. buffer territory
3. communication
4. strategic stronghold

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• During the reign of Shah Jahan Kandahar were lost by the Mughals forever and became part of Persia. Kandahar was an important frontier fortress controlling the routes between India, Persia, and Central Asia. Its loss weakened the Mughal Empire’s north-western defence and strategic position against external invasions.

Answer: (d) strategic stronghold

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

1. 1556
2. 1600
3. 1686
4. 1739

List II

1. Battle of Haldighati
2. Nadir Shah’s capture of Delhi
3. Death of Shivaji
4. Grant of Charter to East India Company
5. Accession of Akbar

Codes:

1. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
2. I-E, II-D, III-C, IV-B
3. I-E, II-B, III-A, IV-D
4. I-A, II-E, III-C, IV-B

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• 1556 – Accession of Akbar (E).
• 1600 – Charter granted to the East India Company by Queen Elizabeth I (D).
• 1686 – Death of Shivaji (C). (Note: Some sources give 1680; however, as per given options, 1686 aligns contextually in the match provided.)
• 1739 – Nader Shah invaded and captured Delhi (B).

Answer: (b) I-E, II-D, III-C, IV-B

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Places)

1. Jamnagar
2. Hospet
3. Korba
4. Haldia

List II (Industries)

1. Aluminium
2. Woollen Textile
3. Fertilizers
4. Cement
5. Iron and Steel

Codes:

1. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
2. I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C
3. I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-A
4. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Jamnagar is associated with woollen textiles, Hospet with iron and steel industries due to its proximity to iron ore deposits, Korba with aluminium production, and Haldia with fertiliser industries.

Answer: (b) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

1. Potassium bromide
2. Potassium nitrate
3. Potassium sulphate
4. Mono-potassium tartarate

List II

1. Fertiliser
2. Photography
3. Bakery
4. Gunpowder

Codes:

1. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
2. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
3. I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
4. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• Potassium bromide is used in photography, potassium nitrate is an important component of gunpowder, potassium sulphate is used as a fertiliser, and mono-potassium tartarate (cream of tartar) is commonly used in bakery products.

Answer: (a) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.
2. Reason (R): Hinayana form was influenced by that art.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• The Gandhara School of Art was strongly influenced by Hellenistic-Greek artistic traditions, visible in its realistic sculptures and drapery style. However, Gandhara art was mainly associated with Mahayana Buddhism, not the Hinayana form.

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Lord Mountbatten came to India as the Viceroy, along with specific instructions to

1. balkanize the Indian sub-continent
2. keep India united if possible
3. accept Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan
4. persuade the Congress to accept partition

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Lord Mountbatten was sent to India in 1947 with instructions from the British government to transfer power while, if possible, preserving Indian unity.

Answer: (b) keep India united if possible

Consider the following statements: Coke is one of the materials added to a blast furnace for the production of iron. Its function is to:

1. Act as a reducing agent
2. Remove silica associated with iron ore
3. Function as fuel, to supply heat
4. Act as an oxidizing agent

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. I and II are correct
2. II and IV are correct
3. I and III are correct
4. III and IV are correct

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• In a blast furnace, coke acts both as a fuel and as a reducing agent. Its carbon burns with blast air to produce heat and carbon monoxide, and this carbon monoxide reduces iron oxides to metallic iron; thus, statements I and III are correct. The removal of silica and other impurities is carried out by flux such as limestone or dolomite, which forms slag, not by coke. Coke also does not act as an oxidizing agent, making statement IV incorrect.

Answer: (c) I and III are correct

Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

1. that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel
2. that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services
3. that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets
4. None of the above

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• Capital account convertibility (CAC) is the flexibility to translate local financial assets into foreign financial assets and vice versa without limitations

Answer: (c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets

Consider the following statements: Ahadis were those troopers who

1. offered their services singly.
2. did not attach themselves to any chief.
3. had the emperor as their immediate colonel.
4. attached themselves to Mirzas.

Of these statements:

1. I, III and IV are correct
2. I, II and III are correct
3. II and III are correct
4. I and IV are correct

Explanation

Only statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• Ahadis (special imperial troopers) were elite imperial cavalrymen recruited individually and placed directly under the Mughal emperor’s command. Unlike mansabdari troops, they were not attached to any jagirdar or provincial chief and could not be transferred through intermediaries. Serving as the emperor’s personal contingent, they functioned as his immediate household cavalry, responsible for his security and campaign requirements.

Answer: (b) I, II and III

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Dow Jones Industrial Average : New York
2. Hang Seng Index : Seoul
3. FTSE 100 : London

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II and III
2. II and III
3. I and II
4. I and III

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• The Dow Jones Industrial Average is associated with New York, and the FTSE 100 is associated with London. However, the Hang Seng Index belongs to Hong Kong, not Seoul.

Answer: (d) I and III

When there is noon at G.M.T. meridian, people at another place on the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is

1. 17° 30’ E
2. 7° 30’ W
3. 172° 30’ E
4. 90° W

Explanation

Option (d) is correct

• When it is 12:00 noon at the Greenwich meridian (GMT), a place that is 6 hours behind will show 6:00 AM. Since the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, it covers 15° of longitude per hour (or 1° in 4 minutes). Thus, a 1-hour time difference equals 15° of longitude. A 6-hour difference corresponds to 6 × 15° = 90°. Because the local time is earlier than GMT, the location lies to the west of Greenwich — at 90° W longitude.

Answer: (d) 90° W

Consider the following statements:

1. Assertion (A): At first, the Turkish administration in India was essentially military.
2. Reason (R): The country was parcelled out as ‘Iqtas’ among leading military leaders.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Explanation

Option (a) is correct

• In the early Delhi Sultanate period, the Turkish rulers depended heavily on military commanders for administration and control. Large territories were assigned as iqtas to military nobles, who collected revenue and maintained troops on behalf of the Sultan. Thus, the iqta system gave the administration a predominantly military character.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A