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Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – November 18 2023

Questions

Q1. { Geo – Eg – Water Resources } Consider the following statements about the Depletion of Water Reserves in India:

  1. More than 60 per cent of the nation’s irrigated agriculture depends on groundwater.
  2. Hard Rock Aquifers are easier to recharge and have more storage capacity against the alluvial aquifers found in northwest India.
  3. Projected increases in precipitation over time will certainly help in keeping the groundwater reserves charged.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Q2. { Polity – IC – 5th Schedule } Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Areas in India:

  1. Telangana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh have Scheduled Areas designated Under 5th Schedule. Whereas Mizoram and Meghalaya under 6th Schedule.
  2. The President of India notifies India’s Scheduled Areas. States with Scheduled Areas need to constitute a Tribal Advisory Council with up to 20 ST members.
  3. Under the purview of Article 244, more than 70% of the Tribal Population of India is Covered.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q3. { Social Sector – Health – Issues } : Consider the following statements about the Measles Outbreak in India:

  1. Death due to measles have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, and in the year 2021-2022, less than 1000 deaths were reported due to Measles.
  2. Measles can be spread from mother to baby by pregnancy, labor or nursing.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. {Environment – Conservation} Consider the following statements regarding the Cryosphere:

  1. Cryosphere helps maintain Earth’s climate by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space.
  2. Snow and ice have a low albedo.
  3. If ‘feedback loop’ aggravates, the carbon is released in form of Carbon Tetrachloride, a powerful greenhouse gas – which causes the global warming.
  4. India has recently become a partner of a newly formed high-level group ‘Ambition on Melting Ice (AMI)’ on Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Q5. { S&T – Neurotech } Consider the following statements regarding Neurotechnology:

  1. Deep Brain Stimulation works by altering the electrical signals in targeted brain regions, effectively “resetting” or normalizing the neural activity
  2. Neurofeedback techniques does not have consequences on an individual’s mental well-being, personal identity, or autonomy and are safe.
  3. National Alliance on Mental Illness is organizing an international conference in Paris to address the ethical implications of neurotech devices that collect brain-wave data.
  4. Neurotechnology aimed at enhancing cognitive abilities, are able to create a ‘Cognitive Divide’ in the Society.
How many of the above statement(s) is are correct ?
  1. Only two
  2. Only three
  3. All four
  4. Only One

Q6. { Polity – Sterling Witness } Which of the following statement is True about Sterling Quality ?

  1. The guilty can be punished only when the testimony is provided by sterling witness whose testimony can be relied upon without corroboration.
  2. Conviction can be based upon the uncorroborated testimony of the sole eyewitness if it is found reliable.
  3. Under the Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any person can be a witness unless they are unable to understand and answer the questions that are asked to them.
  4. Article 20 (3) of the Constitution talks about Sterling Witness and Sterling Quality.

Questions with Solutions and Explanation

Q1. { Geo – Eg – Water Resources } Consider the following statements about the Depletion of Water Reserves in India:

  1. More than 60 per cent of the nation’s irrigated agriculture depends on groundwater.
  2. Hard Rock Aquifers are easier to recharge and have more storage capacity against the alluvial aquifers found in northwest India.
  3. Projected increases in precipitation over time will certainly help in keeping the groundwater reserves charged.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Continued Global Warming may triple groundwater depletion rates over the coming decades was made under a business-as-usual scenario.
  • This is critical, given that more than 60 per cent of the nation’s irrigated agriculture depends on groundwater and portions of India are already facing severe groundwater depletion.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Currently, most overexploitation of aquifers is concentrated in the northwest and south India.
  • Such an expansion is of concern because south and central India have hard rock aquifers that are more difficult to recharge and have less storage capacity against the alluvial aquifers found in northwest India.
  • It is therefore more likely that farmers in these systems will lose their ability to irrigate if aquifers become overexploited
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • As the country becomes warmer, people will draw more water from underground, leading to faster depletion.
  • The situation can occur despite the projected increases in precipitation and possible decreases in irrigation use as groundwater tables fall.
  • India’s groundwater woes are closely related to changing crop patterns after the Green Revolution, and exacerbated by a lopsided grain procurement system.
  • Ground water depletion in many areas can be linked to the promotion of rice and free electricity.
  • There are indications that the monsoon can weaken over the Western Ghats over this century. This is supposedly due to more rapid warming of the Indian ocean relative to the land, thereby reducing the strength of winds.
  • https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/india-will-be-losing-groundwater-three-times-faster-in-2041-2080-finds-study-91503
Answer: (b) 1 only

Q2. { Polity – IC – 5th Schedule } Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Areas in India:

  1. Telangana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh have Scheduled Areas designated Under 5th Schedule. Whereas Mizoram and Meghalaya under 6th Schedule.
  2. The President of India notifies India’s Scheduled Areas. States with Scheduled Areas need to constitute a Tribal Advisory Council with up to 20 ST members.
  3. Under the purview of Article 244, more than 70% of the Tribal Population of India is Covered.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • The Scheduled Areas are designated in 10 states under the Fifth schedule: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Himachal Pradesh.
  • 4 States under the Sixth Schedule: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Statement 2 is correct
  • The President of India notifies India’s Scheduled Areas. States with Scheduled Areas need to constitute a Tribal Advisory Council with up to 20 ST members.
  • They will advise the Governor on matters referred to them regarding ST welfare. The Governor will then submit a report every year to the president regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Despite demands from Adivasi organizations, a significant portion of India’s ST population (59%) is outside the purview of Article 244, denying them rights protected under laws applicable to Scheduled Areas.
  • They are denied rights under the laws applicable to Scheduled Areas, including the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act 2013 and the Biological Diversity Act 2002.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Q3. { Social Sector – Health – Issues } : Consider the following statements about the Measles Outbreak in India:

  1. Death due to measles have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, and in the year 2021-2022, less than 1000 deaths was reported due to Measles.
  2. Measles can be spread from mother to baby by pregnancy, labor or nursing.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect
  • Also called rubeola, measles spreads easily and can be serious and even fatal for small children. While death rates have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, the disease still kills more than 200,000 people a year, mostly children.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • While it’s true that measles can spread from mother to baby while nursing or lactating but can’t be spread from mother to foetus during pregnancy. Because there are protective antibodies that are transferred from mother to baby, providing the child protection till 6 months after birth.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. {Environment – Conservation} Consider the following statements regarding the Cryosphere:

  1. Cryosphere helps maintain Earth’s climate by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space.
  2. Snow and ice have a low albedo.
  3. If ‘feedback loop’ aggravates, the carbon is released in form of Carbon Tetrachloride, a powerful greenhouse gas – which causes the global warming.
  4. India has recently become a partner of a newly formed high-level group ‘Ambition on Melting Ice (AMI)’ on Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct
  • Cryosphere helps maintain Earth’s climate by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space.
Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Snow and ice have high albedo. They reflect most of the light without being absorbed and helps in cooling of the earth. Thus, presence or absence of snow and ice affects the heating and cooling of Earth’s surface
Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Melting of ice reduces the reflective surfaces, the ocean and land are darker in color, which absorb more solar radiation, and then release the heat to the atmosphere.
  • This causes more warming and so more ice melts. This is known as a feedback loop.
  • If ‘feedback loop’ aggravates, the carbon is released in form of methane, a powerful greenhouse gas- which causes the global warming.
  • Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), which was once used in applications such as dry cleaning and as a fire-extinguishing agent, was regulated in 1987 under the Montreal Protocol along with other chlorofluorocarbons that destroy ozone and contribute to the ozone hole over Antarctica.
Statement 4 is incorrect
  • At COP27, a broad coalition of 18 governments joined together to create a new high-level group ‘Ambition on Melting Ice (AMI) on Sea-level Rise and Mountain Water Resources’.
  • The founding governments of the group include Chile (co-chair), Iceland (co-chair), Peru, Czech Republic, Nepal, Finland, Senegal, Kyrgyz Republic, Samoa, Georgia, Switzerland, New Zealand, Monaco, Vanuatu, Sweden, Tanzania, Liberia, Norway and Mexico.
Answer: (c) Only three

Q5. { S&T – Neurotech } Consider the following statements regarding Neurotechnology:

  1. Deep Brain Stimulation works by altering the electrical signals in targeted brain regions, effectively “resetting” or normalizing the neural activity
  2. Neurofeedback techniques does not have consequences on an individual’s mental well-being, personal identity, or autonomy and are safe.
  3. National Alliance on Mental Illness is organizing an international conference in Paris to address the ethical implications of neurotech devices that collect brain-wave data.
  4. Neurotechnology aimed at enhancing cognitive abilities, are able to create a ‘Cognitive Divide’ in the Society.
How many of the above statement(s) is are correct ?
  1. Only two
  2. Only three
  3. All four
  4. Only One

Explanation

Option (a) is Correct
  • Deep Brain Stimulation is a neurosurgical procedure that involves the implantation of a medical device called a neurostimulator, which delivers electrical impulses to specific regions of the brain.
  • DBS works by altering the electrical signals in targeted brain regions, effectively “resetting” or normalizing the neural activity.
Option (b) is incorrect
  • The use of neurotechnology can potentially reveal highly personal and sensitive information about an individual’s thoughts, emotions, and mental states.
  • Combined with artificial intelligence, its resulting potential can easily become a threat to notions of human dignity, freedom of thought, autonomy, (mental) privacy and well-being.
Option (c) is incorrect
  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is organizing an international conference in Paris, France to address the ethical implications of neurotech devices that collect brain-wave data.
  • This conference aims to establish a global ethical framework to ensure individual freedom of thought, privacy, and protection of human rights.
  • The National Alliance on Mental Illness (NAMI) is America’s largest grassroot mental health organization dedicated to building better lives for the millions of Americans affected by mental illness.
Option (d) is Correct
  • Neurotechnology aimed at enhancing cognitive abilities raise concerns about fairness and equality.
  • If these technologies become available only to a privileged few or exacerbate existing social inequalities, it could lead to an unfair advantage for certain individuals or groups, creating acognitive divide” in society.
Answer: (a) Only two

Q6. { Polity – Sterling Witness } Which of the following statement is True about Sterling Quality ?

  1. The guilty can be punished only when the testimony is provided by sterling witness whose testimony can be relied upon without corroboration.
  2. Conviction can be based upon the uncorroborated testimony of the sole eyewitness if it is found reliable.
  3. Under the Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any person can be a witness unless they are unable to understand and answer the questions that are asked to them.
  4. Article 20 (3) of the Constitution talks about Sterling Witness and Sterling Quality.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct; option (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
  • In Sandeep alias Deepu v. State of NCT of Delhi (2012) case, SC held that the guilty can be punished only when the testimony is provided by sterling witness whose testimony can be relied upon without corroboration.
  • Article 20 (3) – No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. more than once nor be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself. Hence, Statement d is Wrong.
  • Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – All persons shall be competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers to those questions, by tender years, extreme old age, disease, whether of body or mind, or any other cause of the same kind. Hence, statement c is incorrect.
  • Testimony-Conviction on the basis of the sole testimony of a single witness, even uncorroborated by other evidence, if absolutely reliable is valid Constitution of India Art. 136-Rule of Practice interference by the Supreme Court by. reappraisal of evidence. Hence, Statement b is also Incorrect.
Answer: (a) The guilty can be punished only when the testimony is provided by sterling witness whose testimony can be relied upon without corroboration.
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