May 09 2024 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Registered marriages in India are conducted under the Special Marriage Act of 1954, which is a secular law.
• Unlike solemnised marriages, registered marriages do not involve any religious rituals or ceremonies.
• Couples opting for a registered marriage typically solemnise their marriage in a registrar’s office without any religious affiliations.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Solemnised marriages can be considered valid under both personal laws, which vary based on religious affiliations, and the Special Marriage Act.
• The Special Marriage Act provides an alternative for couples who wish to marry without religious considerations or when the partners belong to different religions.
• Therefore, both types of marriages can be legally valid under different legal frameworks.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• While the registration of marriages is mandatory in some states of India, it is not universally required in all states.
• However, the registration of marriages is typically mandatory for couples opting for a registered marriage under the Special Marriage Act.
• In contrast, for solemnised marriages conducted according to religious customs, the requirement for registration may vary depending on the state laws and personal preferences of the couple.
• States have their laws, and in some states, like Karnataka and Delhi, marriage registration is mandatory.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• The Kalapani area is of strategic significance in South Asian diplomacy as it serves as a tri-junction between India, China and Nepal.
• Since 1962, Kalapani has been manned by the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP).

  

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Nepal shows the Kali River about 16 kilometers northwest of Kalapani at Limpiyadhura in the Zanskar range of the Himalayas. Thus, the entire stretch starting from Limpiyadhura, including Kalapani and Lipulekh, belongs to Nepal.
  • India argues that the River Kali originated from a smaller rivulet named Pankhagad, lying on the southern portion of Kalapani, and the subsequent ridge on the eastern part of this area is the true border, therefore making the territory part of India.

  

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Section 52 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA) specifies the conditions under which the poll shall be adjourned in case of the death of a recognized political party’s candidate.
• According to this provision, if the death of the candidate occurs after 11.00 a.m. on the last date for making nominations until the commencement of the poll, the poll shall be adjourned to a later date.

Statement 2 is correct

• If the death of a candidate occurs after the commencement of the poll, it is the responsibility of the Returning Officer (RO) to report the candidate’s death to the Election Commission (EC).
• The RO then orders the adjournment of the poll to a later date, as directed by the Commission.
• This ensures that the election process is conducted in accordance with the law and any disruptions due to the candidate’s death are addressed appropriately.

Statement 3 is correct

• In the event that the deceased candidate wins the election after the polling and counting process, the Representation of the People Act (RPA) mandates the conduct of a by-election to fill the vacant seat left by the deceased candidate.
• This ensures that the constituency is adequately represented in the legislative body and that the democratic process is upheld.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• This statement suggests using impermeable materials such as asphalt or concrete for parking lots, which would hinder water absorption and increase surface runoff.
• Additionally, while the idea of installing vegetated green roofs on buildings to absorb rainwater seems plausible, the use of impermeable materials contradicts the concept of creating “sponge cities,” which aim to enhance water absorption and reduce runoff by promoting permeable surfaces.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• This statement initially appears plausible, as redirecting stormwater flow towards paved areas could be interpreted as an attempt to improve urban drainage systems.
• However, upon closer inspection, this approach may lead to increased surface runoff and pollution as stormwater collects pollutants from paved surfaces and is directed away from natural water bodies.
• Therefore, this statement presents a misleading approach to managing stormwater and contradicts the goals of creating “sponge cities.”

Statement 3 is correct

• This statement correctly highlights the importance of utilizing natural areas for stormwater storage to enhance urban resilience and ecological value.
• Preserving and enhancing natural areas such as wetlands, forests, and green spaces can help mitigate flooding, improve water quality, and support biodiversity.
• Therefore, this statement aligns with the principles of creating “sponge cities” by promoting effective stormwater management and ecological conservation.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• In such economies, central planning authorities exert significant control over resource allocation, production targets, and pricing of goods and services.
• Economic activities are primarily guided by central planning authorities, with the government owning and controlling key industries, setting production targets, and determining prices of goods and services.
• Government intervention and centralized decision-making are key features of non-market economies, distinguishing them from market economies.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Non-market economies typically do not prioritize competition and profit maximization in the same way market economies do.
• In a non-market economy, there may be little to no competition in many industries, as the government may control or heavily regulate key sectors. Instead of allowing market forces to determine prices and production levels, the government may set quotas, prices, and production targets centrally.
• While profit may still be a consideration in some non-market economies, it typically takes a back seat to other objectives, such as maintaining stability, fostering employment, or achieving broader social or political goals.
• The focus may be on ensuring equitable distribution of resources or promoting specific industries deemed important for national development.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• AlphaFold3 is a new AI model developed by Google DeepMind and Isomorphic Labs.
• It is a revolutionary model that can predict the structure and interactions of all life’s molecules with unprecedented accuracy and even it mapped the behaviour for all of life’s molecules, including human DNA.
• It can generate molecules’ joint 3D structure, revealing how they all fit together.
• It models large biomolecules such as proteins, DNA and RNA, as well as small molecules, also known as ligands; a category encompassing many drugs.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Key Features:
  • Prediction Accuracy: AlphaFold3 is renowned for its unprecedented accuracy in predicting the structure and interactions of various molecules found in living organisms. This includes proteins, DNA, RNA, and small molecules like drugs.
  • Comprehensive Modeling: It goes beyond merely predicting individual molecule structures by also modeling their interactions and chemical modifications. This comprehensive approach provides insights into how these molecules function within cellular systems.
  • Diffusion Network: AlphaFold3 utilizes a diffusion network, similar to those employed in AI image generators, to assemble its predictions. This innovative technique enhances the accuracy and efficiency of its modeling capabilities.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• The African Union (AU), comprising 55 member states, condemned the Israeli military’s incursion into Rafah, southern Gaza, urging the international community to halt the “deadly escalation” of the conflict.
• Agenda 2063 is a set of initiatives proposed and currently under implementation by the African Union.
• It was adopted on 31 January 2015 at the 24th Ordinary Assembly of the Heads of State and Governments of the African Union in Addis Ababa.
• The call for such an agenda was first made by the 21st Ordinary Assembly on 26 May 2013, 50 years after the foundation of the Organisation of African Unity, as a plan for the next 50 years.
• The stated goals of the Agenda are economic development (including the eradication of poverty within one generation), political integration (in particular through the establishment of a federal or confederate United Africa), improvements in democracy and justice, establishment of security and peace on the entire African continent, strengthening of cultural identity through an “African renaissance” and pan-African ideals, gender equality, and political independence from foreign powers.

Answer: (a) African Union; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

• In India, clinicians use the Widal test extensively to diagnose typhoid in both public and private sectors.
  • Typhoid spreads through contaminated food and water and is caused by Salmonella typhi and other related bacteria.
  • Also known as enteric fever, it presents with a high fever, stomach pain, weakness, and other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea or constipation, and a rash.
• As with other infections, our immune system produces antibodies in the blood against the bacteria, causing enteric fever.
• The Widal test rapidly detects and quantifies these antibodies. It’s a point-of-care test and doesn’t need special skills or infrastructure.
  • Developed in the late 1800s by a French physician, it is no longer used in many countries because of its flaws.
• Why is the Widal test inappropriate?
• A single positive Widal test report doesn’t necessarily mean a typhoid infection is present, and a negative report doesn’t confirm the disease’s absence.
  • To diagnose an active infection, clinicians must test at least two serum samples taken at least 7-14 days apart, so that they may detect a change in concentrations of the antibodies. But getting two samples is rarely feasible and time-consuming.
• Second, in areas with high and continuous typhoid burden, certain levels of antibodies against the bacteria may already be present in the blood.
  • Without knowing the baseline cut-off, it isn’t possible to correctly interpret the test.
• Third, the reagents used in the Widal test to reveal the presence of various antibodies can cross-react with antibodies produced against infections by other bacteria, viruses or parasites, or even in typhoid-vaccinated individuals, leading to false positives.
  • Prior antibiotic therapy can also affect antibody levels and yield a false negative.
• Because of the Widal test’s propensity for erroneous results, the actual burden of typhoid in India remains obfuscated.

Answer: (d) Typhoid; Difficulty Level: Medium