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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following statements:
Freedom of the Press is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution under Article 19(1)(a).
Press Council of India (PCI) is a self regulatory body which acts as a watchdog to safeguard and promote press freedom and the ethical standards of journalism.
However, Freedom of the press or media refers to the rights given by the IC under the freedom and expression of speech in Article 19(1)(a).
It encouragesindependentjournalism and promotesdemocracy by letting the people voice their opinions for or against the government’s actions.
However, there are certain restrictions in Article 19(2) to protect the nation and its integrity.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Institutions Responsible for Protecting Press Freedom in India
Press Council of India (PCI): It is a statutory body established under the Press Council Act of 1978.
Watchdog to safeguard and promote press freedom and the ethical standards of journalism.
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting: This government bodyformulatespolicies and guidelines related to the media sector in India.
News Broadcasters Association (NBA): NBA is a self-regulatory body representing the private television news and current affairs broadcasters in India.
It formulates and enforces a code of ethics and standards for television news channels.
Editors Guild of India: It is a voluntary association of editors of leading newspapers and news magazines in India.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. {IE – Exchange Rates} Consider the following statements about Exchange Rates:
The Indian rupee appreciates against the US dollar.
The Indian rupee depreciates against the euro.
The Indian economy experiences higher inflation than its trading partners.
Which of the above scenarios would likely lead to an increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) of the Indian rupee?
Correct
Explanation
Scenario 1 is incorrect
Appreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar:
When the Rupee appreciates against the US dollar, it means that one rupee can buy moreUS dollars.
This typically leads to an increase in the NominalEffective Exchange Rate (NEER).
However, the impact on the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) depends on other factors. If the appreciation is due to higher inflation in the US (relative to India), the REER may not necessarily increase.
Scenario 2 is correct
Depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the Euro:
A depreciation of the rupee against the euro means that one rupee can buy fewereuros. This tends to decrease the NEER.
However, if the euro is the currency of India’s major trading partners, this depreciation can positively impact the REER. It reflects competitiveness in trade, as Indian exports become cheaper for eurozone countries.
Scenario 3 is correct
Higher Inflation in India than in Trading Partners:
When India experiences higher inflation than its trading partners, it erodes the purchasing power of the rupeedomestically.
The REERadjusts for inflation differentials.
If India’s inflation is significantly higher, the REER will likely increase, reflecting a real depreciation of the rupee.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Scenario 1 is incorrect
Appreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar:
When the Rupee appreciates against the US dollar, it means that one rupee can buy moreUS dollars.
This typically leads to an increase in the NominalEffective Exchange Rate (NEER).
However, the impact on the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) depends on other factors. If the appreciation is due to higher inflation in the US (relative to India), the REER may not necessarily increase.
Scenario 2 is correct
Depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the Euro:
A depreciation of the rupee against the euro means that one rupee can buy fewereuros. This tends to decrease the NEER.
However, if the euro is the currency of India’s major trading partners, this depreciation can positively impact the REER. It reflects competitiveness in trade, as Indian exports become cheaper for eurozone countries.
Scenario 3 is correct
Higher Inflation in India than in Trading Partners:
When India experiences higher inflation than its trading partners, it erodes the purchasing power of the rupeedomestically.
The REERadjusts for inflation differentials.
If India’s inflation is significantly higher, the REER will likely increase, reflecting a real depreciation of the rupee.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Scenario 1 is incorrect
Appreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar:
When the Rupee appreciates against the US dollar, it means that one rupee can buy moreUS dollars.
This typically leads to an increase in the NominalEffective Exchange Rate (NEER).
However, the impact on the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) depends on other factors. If the appreciation is due to higher inflation in the US (relative to India), the REER may not necessarily increase.
Scenario 2 is correct
Depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the Euro:
A depreciation of the rupee against the euro means that one rupee can buy fewereuros. This tends to decrease the NEER.
However, if the euro is the currency of India’s major trading partners, this depreciation can positively impact the REER. It reflects competitiveness in trade, as Indian exports become cheaper for eurozone countries.
Scenario 3 is correct
Higher Inflation in India than in Trading Partners:
When India experiences higher inflation than its trading partners, it erodes the purchasing power of the rupeedomestically.
The REERadjusts for inflation differentials.
If India’s inflation is significantly higher, the REER will likely increase, reflecting a real depreciation of the rupee.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. {Envi – CC Impacts} Consider the following statements about the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
CDRI is a major global initiative by India launched at the United Nations Climate Action Summit, 2019.
The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
Infrastructure for Resilient Island States and Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund are the initiatives taken under CDRI.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
ICDRI is the annual international conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) in partnership with member countries, organizations and institutions to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilientinfrastructure.
CDRI is an Independent International Organization consisting of global partnership of national governments, United Nations agencies and programs, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and academic and research institutions.
It was launched in 2019, at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York.
Statement 2 is correct
It aims to increase the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.
CDRI is India’ssecond major global initiative after the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
Members:
Since its inception, 31 countries, 6 international organisations and 2 private sector organisations have joined CDRI as members.
Statement 3 is correct
Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS):
India launched this initiative as a part of the CDRI that would focus on building capacity, having pilot projects, especially in Small Island Developing States or SIDS.
Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund:
The Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund is a fund supported by both the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
It is a trust fund that will be managed by the United Nations Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (UN MPTFO) to help in improving the ability of infrastructure systems to withstand disasters, with a special focus on developing countries and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
ICDRI is the annual international conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) in partnership with member countries, organizations and institutions to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilientinfrastructure.
CDRI is an Independent International Organization consisting of global partnership of national governments, United Nations agencies and programs, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and academic and research institutions.
It was launched in 2019, at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York.
Statement 2 is correct
It aims to increase the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.
CDRI is India’ssecond major global initiative after the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
Members:
Since its inception, 31 countries, 6 international organisations and 2 private sector organisations have joined CDRI as members.
Statement 3 is correct
Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS):
India launched this initiative as a part of the CDRI that would focus on building capacity, having pilot projects, especially in Small Island Developing States or SIDS.
Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund:
The Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund is a fund supported by both the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
It is a trust fund that will be managed by the United Nations Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (UN MPTFO) to help in improving the ability of infrastructure systems to withstand disasters, with a special focus on developing countries and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
ICDRI is the annual international conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) in partnership with member countries, organizations and institutions to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilientinfrastructure.
CDRI is an Independent International Organization consisting of global partnership of national governments, United Nations agencies and programs, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the private sector, and academic and research institutions.
It was launched in 2019, at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York.
Statement 2 is correct
It aims to increase the resilience of infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.
CDRI is India’ssecond major global initiative after the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
Members:
Since its inception, 31 countries, 6 international organisations and 2 private sector organisations have joined CDRI as members.
Statement 3 is correct
Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS):
India launched this initiative as a part of the CDRI that would focus on building capacity, having pilot projects, especially in Small Island Developing States or SIDS.
Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund:
The Infrastructure Resilience Accelerator Fund is a fund supported by both the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
It is a trust fund that will be managed by the United Nations Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (UN MPTFO) to help in improving the ability of infrastructure systems to withstand disasters, with a special focus on developing countries and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. {Ministry – Initiatives} Consider the following statements about National Career Service:
It is the mission-mode projects launched in 2015 under the umbrella of the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015.
The project is being implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.
It is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
It was launched in the year 2015.
Objectives:
It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.
It provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, and information on skill development courses, internships and alike.
It is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
It was launched in the year 2015.
Objectives:
It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.
It provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, and information on skill development courses, internships and alike.
It is one of the mission-mode projects under the umbrella of the E-Governance Plan.
It was launched in the year 2015.
Objectives:
It works towards bridging the gap between job-seekers and employers, candidates seeking training and career guidance and agencies providing training and career counselling by transforming the National Employment Service.
It provides a host of career-related services such as dynamic job matching, career counselling, job notifications, vocational guidance, and information on skill development courses, internships and alike.
Nodal Agency: The project is being implemented by the Directorate General of Employment, Ministry of Labour & Employment.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5. {Sci – Biotech} Consider the following statements about Nitroplast:
Nitroplast is the newly discovered nitrogen-fixing organelle found within prokaryotic cells.
It has the ability to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Nitroplast is the newly discovered nitrogen-fixing organelle found within eukaryotic cells.
Traditionally, nitrogen fixation was seen as a prokaryotic (bacteria and archaea) domain.
Nitroplast discovery disrupts this notion, highlighting the fluidity of evolution.
Statement 2 is correct
It has the ability to fix nitrogenfrom the atmosphere.
It allows algae to convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms, a critical step for growth.
Understanding nitroplasts could revolutionize agriculture.
By incorporating nitrogen-fixing genes into crops, scientists envision plants that don’t rely on fertilizers and can reduce the environmental impact.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Nitroplast is the newly discovered nitrogen-fixing organelle found within eukaryotic cells.
Traditionally, nitrogen fixation was seen as a prokaryotic (bacteria and archaea) domain.
Nitroplast discovery disrupts this notion, highlighting the fluidity of evolution.
Statement 2 is correct
It has the ability to fix nitrogenfrom the atmosphere.
It allows algae to convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms, a critical step for growth.
Understanding nitroplasts could revolutionize agriculture.
By incorporating nitrogen-fixing genes into crops, scientists envision plants that don’t rely on fertilizers and can reduce the environmental impact.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Nitroplast is the newly discovered nitrogen-fixing organelle found within eukaryotic cells.
Traditionally, nitrogen fixation was seen as a prokaryotic (bacteria and archaea) domain.
Nitroplast discovery disrupts this notion, highlighting the fluidity of evolution.
Statement 2 is correct
It has the ability to fix nitrogenfrom the atmosphere.
It allows algae to convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms, a critical step for growth.
Understanding nitroplasts could revolutionize agriculture.
By incorporating nitrogen-fixing genes into crops, scientists envision plants that don’t rely on fertilizers and can reduce the environmental impact.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – S&T – Defence – In News} Crystal Maze 2, an air-launched medium-range ballistic missile, is a ballistic missile developed by which of the following country?
Correct
Explanation
Crystal Maze 2
Crystal Maze 2, also referred to as ROCKS, is an air-launchedmedium-rangeballistic missile.
It is of Israeli origin.
It is designed to target high-valuestationary and relocatable assets, such as long-range radars and air defense systems, of potential adversaries.
Features:
Distinguished from its predecessor, Crystal Maze 1, which has been inducted into the Indian Air Force from Israel previously, the Crystal Maze 2 boasts extended stand-off range capabilities as an air-to-surface missile.
It is capable of hitting targets over 250 kilometers away.
With options for either a penetration or blast fragmentation warhead, the missile is capable of destroying above-ground or well-protectedunderground targets.
It is specifically effective in GPS-denied environments.
The deployment strategy of the ROCKS involves releasing the missile well outside the surface-to-air-defended area, followed by a high-velocity trajectory to minimize the risk to aircraft and missiles.
Answer: (a) Israel; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Crystal Maze 2
Crystal Maze 2, also referred to as ROCKS, is an air-launchedmedium-rangeballistic missile.
It is of Israeli origin.
It is designed to target high-valuestationary and relocatable assets, such as long-range radars and air defense systems, of potential adversaries.
Features:
Distinguished from its predecessor, Crystal Maze 1, which has been inducted into the Indian Air Force from Israel previously, the Crystal Maze 2 boasts extended stand-off range capabilities as an air-to-surface missile.
It is capable of hitting targets over 250 kilometers away.
With options for either a penetration or blast fragmentation warhead, the missile is capable of destroying above-ground or well-protectedunderground targets.
It is specifically effective in GPS-denied environments.
The deployment strategy of the ROCKS involves releasing the missile well outside the surface-to-air-defended area, followed by a high-velocity trajectory to minimize the risk to aircraft and missiles.
Answer: (a) Israel; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Crystal Maze 2
Crystal Maze 2, also referred to as ROCKS, is an air-launchedmedium-rangeballistic missile.
It is of Israeli origin.
It is designed to target high-valuestationary and relocatable assets, such as long-range radars and air defense systems, of potential adversaries.
Features:
Distinguished from its predecessor, Crystal Maze 1, which has been inducted into the Indian Air Force from Israel previously, the Crystal Maze 2 boasts extended stand-off range capabilities as an air-to-surface missile.
It is capable of hitting targets over 250 kilometers away.
With options for either a penetration or blast fragmentation warhead, the missile is capable of destroying above-ground or well-protectedunderground targets.
It is specifically effective in GPS-denied environments.
The deployment strategy of the ROCKS involves releasing the missile well outside the surface-to-air-defended area, followed by a high-velocity trajectory to minimize the risk to aircraft and missiles.
Answer: (a) Israel; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about Black Buck:
They can be sighted across almost the whole of the Indian subcontinent including Bangladesh and Pakistan.
They are mainly sedentary, but in summer may move longer distances in search of water and forage.
It has been categorised as Least Concern under the Red List of Threatened Species.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Blackbuck or Antilope cervicapra is also known as Indian Antelope.
Formerly occurred across almost the whole of the Indian subcontinent south of the Himalaya.
Their range decreased during the 20th century and they are now extinct in Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Statement 2 is correct
Blackbuckrequire water daily, which restricts its distribution to areas where surface water is available for the greater part of the year.
They are mainly sedentary, but in summer may move longer distances in search of water and forage.
Type – Blackbucks are gregarious and social animals with herds.
Blackbucks are social animals, living in herds that include from 5 to 50 individuals.
Communication – They use a wide variety of sounds as a means of communication.
For instance, they use dik-diks whistle, which represent warning or anxiety.
They are increasing in many protected areas and areas dominated by Vishnoi communities in Rajasthan and Haryana.
Conversion of dense scrub and woodland to grassland and agriculture also increases the area of suitable habitat.
Statement 3 is correct
Conservation Status
IUCN – Least Concern
WPA – Schedule I
CITES – Appendix III
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Blackbuck or Antilope cervicapra is also known as Indian Antelope.
Formerly occurred across almost the whole of the Indian subcontinent south of the Himalaya.
Their range decreased during the 20th century and they are now extinct in Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Statement 2 is correct
Blackbuckrequire water daily, which restricts its distribution to areas where surface water is available for the greater part of the year.
They are mainly sedentary, but in summer may move longer distances in search of water and forage.
Type – Blackbucks are gregarious and social animals with herds.
Blackbucks are social animals, living in herds that include from 5 to 50 individuals.
Communication – They use a wide variety of sounds as a means of communication.
For instance, they use dik-diks whistle, which represent warning or anxiety.
They are increasing in many protected areas and areas dominated by Vishnoi communities in Rajasthan and Haryana.
Conversion of dense scrub and woodland to grassland and agriculture also increases the area of suitable habitat.
Statement 3 is correct
Conservation Status
IUCN – Least Concern
WPA – Schedule I
CITES – Appendix III
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Blackbuck or Antilope cervicapra is also known as Indian Antelope.
Formerly occurred across almost the whole of the Indian subcontinent south of the Himalaya.
Their range decreased during the 20th century and they are now extinct in Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Statement 2 is correct
Blackbuckrequire water daily, which restricts its distribution to areas where surface water is available for the greater part of the year.
They are mainly sedentary, but in summer may move longer distances in search of water and forage.
Type – Blackbucks are gregarious and social animals with herds.
Blackbucks are social animals, living in herds that include from 5 to 50 individuals.
Communication – They use a wide variety of sounds as a means of communication.
For instance, they use dik-diks whistle, which represent warning or anxiety.
They are increasing in many protected areas and areas dominated by Vishnoi communities in Rajasthan and Haryana.
Conversion of dense scrub and woodland to grassland and agriculture also increases the area of suitable habitat.
Statement 3 is correct
Conservation Status
IUCN – Least Concern
WPA – Schedule I
CITES – Appendix III
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – S&T – Space} Consider the following statements with respect to Sympathetic Flares:
They are a consequence of coronal mass ejections and are signs that the Sun is at the peak of its 11-year solar cycle.
If directed towards Earth, they have the capacity to disrupt terrestrial power grids, telecommunication networks and orbiting satellites.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sympathetic flares are caused by multiple eruptions across the Sun’s magnetic field, connected by huge loops above the solar surface.
When one flare happens, others tend to follow.
When one spot detonates, others follow suit.
This leads to coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and massive bursts of plasma.
These flares are signs that the Sun is at the peak of its 11-year solar cycle, known as solar maximum. During this time, solar events like flares and CMEs become more frequent.
Statement 2 is correct
Most of the time, these sympathetic flares involve two linked flares, ranging from small to very powerful X-class flares. But when four flares happen together, it’s called a “super-sympathetic” event.
If directed towards the Earth, they have the potential to disruptpower grids, telecommunication networks and orbiting satellites and expose astronauts to dangerous doses of radiation.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sympathetic flares are caused by multiple eruptions across the Sun’s magnetic field, connected by huge loops above the solar surface.
When one flare happens, others tend to follow.
When one spot detonates, others follow suit.
This leads to coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and massive bursts of plasma.
These flares are signs that the Sun is at the peak of its 11-year solar cycle, known as solar maximum. During this time, solar events like flares and CMEs become more frequent.
Statement 2 is correct
Most of the time, these sympathetic flares involve two linked flares, ranging from small to very powerful X-class flares. But when four flares happen together, it’s called a “super-sympathetic” event.
If directed towards the Earth, they have the potential to disruptpower grids, telecommunication networks and orbiting satellites and expose astronauts to dangerous doses of radiation.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Sympathetic flares are caused by multiple eruptions across the Sun’s magnetic field, connected by huge loops above the solar surface.
When one flare happens, others tend to follow.
When one spot detonates, others follow suit.
This leads to coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and massive bursts of plasma.
These flares are signs that the Sun is at the peak of its 11-year solar cycle, known as solar maximum. During this time, solar events like flares and CMEs become more frequent.
Statement 2 is correct
Most of the time, these sympathetic flares involve two linked flares, ranging from small to very powerful X-class flares. But when four flares happen together, it’s called a “super-sympathetic” event.
If directed towards the Earth, they have the potential to disruptpower grids, telecommunication networks and orbiting satellites and expose astronauts to dangerous doses of radiation.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Ethylene Oxide:
It is a colourless, highly flammable and very reactive gas that kills bacteria, viruses and fungi.
There is an immediate risk to consuming foods even with low levels of ethylene oxide as it poses an evident risk of cancers like leukemia, stomach cancer and breast cancer.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ethylene oxide is a pesticide that has been classified as a Group 1 carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC)
It is a specialized cancer agency of the World Health Organization (WHO).
It was established in 1965 by a resolution of the World Health Assembly.
The IARC and the Joint Organization Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA) are both groups of the WHO.
It is used by the spice industry as a fumigant to reduce microbial contamination, such as E. coli and Salmonella.
It is a colourless, highly flammable and very reactive gas that kills bacteria, viruses and fungi.
It is an industrial chemical and can damage DNA during sterilisation procedures.
Statement 2 is incorrect
There is no immediate risk to consuming foods with low levels of ethylene oxide.
But the carcinogenic properties of this pesticide may triggercancer cells on prolonged consumption and may lead to health hazards in the long run.
Its persistent exposure over time and has been linked to an increased risk of cancers like leukemia, stomach cancer and breast cancer.
It can even lead to respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and shortness of breath.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ethylene oxide is a pesticide that has been classified as a Group 1 carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC)
It is a specialized cancer agency of the World Health Organization (WHO).
It was established in 1965 by a resolution of the World Health Assembly.
The IARC and the Joint Organization Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA) are both groups of the WHO.
It is used by the spice industry as a fumigant to reduce microbial contamination, such as E. coli and Salmonella.
It is a colourless, highly flammable and very reactive gas that kills bacteria, viruses and fungi.
It is an industrial chemical and can damage DNA during sterilisation procedures.
Statement 2 is incorrect
There is no immediate risk to consuming foods with low levels of ethylene oxide.
But the carcinogenic properties of this pesticide may triggercancer cells on prolonged consumption and may lead to health hazards in the long run.
Its persistent exposure over time and has been linked to an increased risk of cancers like leukemia, stomach cancer and breast cancer.
It can even lead to respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and shortness of breath.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Ethylene oxide is a pesticide that has been classified as a Group 1 carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC)
It is a specialized cancer agency of the World Health Organization (WHO).
It was established in 1965 by a resolution of the World Health Assembly.
The IARC and the Joint Organization Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA) are both groups of the WHO.
It is used by the spice industry as a fumigant to reduce microbial contamination, such as E. coli and Salmonella.
It is a colourless, highly flammable and very reactive gas that kills bacteria, viruses and fungi.
It is an industrial chemical and can damage DNA during sterilisation procedures.
Statement 2 is incorrect
There is no immediate risk to consuming foods with low levels of ethylene oxide.
But the carcinogenic properties of this pesticide may triggercancer cells on prolonged consumption and may lead to health hazards in the long run.
Its persistent exposure over time and has been linked to an increased risk of cancers like leukemia, stomach cancer and breast cancer.
It can even lead to respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and shortness of breath.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. {Prelims – In News} Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Maximum residue limit (MRL) of Pesticides?
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines Maximum residue limit (MRL) as the highestlegally tolerable level of pesticide in food or animal feed.
The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities, including spices and culinary herbs, are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulation, 2011.
These MRLs are fixed based on the field trial data received through the CIBRC, Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
CIBRC does not conductfield trials of pesticides. The manufacturing companies generally provide the data, which is reviewed by CIBRC to approve pesticides.
The CIBRC never sets any limitson residues.
There is no declared procedure of using this data to fix MRLs.
If the pesticide is not registered with CIBRC, then the MRL of 0.1 mg / kg will be applicable for the spices and herbs.
MRLs specified by Codex Alimentarius, a collection of internationally adopted food standards, are to be applied.
Codex Alimentarius was established by FAO and the World Health Organization in 1963.
In the absence of Codex, regulating authorities in the country of export will specify the MRLs.
For food commodities besides spices and culinary herbs, MRL is applicableunder Codex.
Answer: (b) The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006; Difficulty Level: Medium
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines Maximum residue limit (MRL) as the highestlegally tolerable level of pesticide in food or animal feed.
The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities, including spices and culinary herbs, are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulation, 2011.
These MRLs are fixed based on the field trial data received through the CIBRC, Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
CIBRC does not conductfield trials of pesticides. The manufacturing companies generally provide the data, which is reviewed by CIBRC to approve pesticides.
The CIBRC never sets any limitson residues.
There is no declared procedure of using this data to fix MRLs.
If the pesticide is not registered with CIBRC, then the MRL of 0.1 mg / kg will be applicable for the spices and herbs.
MRLs specified by Codex Alimentarius, a collection of internationally adopted food standards, are to be applied.
Codex Alimentarius was established by FAO and the World Health Organization in 1963.
In the absence of Codex, regulating authorities in the country of export will specify the MRLs.
For food commodities besides spices and culinary herbs, MRL is applicableunder Codex.
Answer: (b) The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006; Difficulty Level: Medium
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines Maximum residue limit (MRL) as the highestlegally tolerable level of pesticide in food or animal feed.
The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities, including spices and culinary herbs, are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulation, 2011.
These MRLs are fixed based on the field trial data received through the CIBRC, Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
CIBRC does not conductfield trials of pesticides. The manufacturing companies generally provide the data, which is reviewed by CIBRC to approve pesticides.
The CIBRC never sets any limitson residues.
There is no declared procedure of using this data to fix MRLs.
If the pesticide is not registered with CIBRC, then the MRL of 0.1 mg / kg will be applicable for the spices and herbs.
MRLs specified by Codex Alimentarius, a collection of internationally adopted food standards, are to be applied.
Codex Alimentarius was established by FAO and the World Health Organization in 1963.
In the absence of Codex, regulating authorities in the country of export will specify the MRLs.
For food commodities besides spices and culinary herbs, MRL is applicableunder Codex.
Answer: (b) The MRLs of pesticides for food and commodities are specified under the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006; Difficulty Level: Medium
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