Current Affairs MCQs – July 19-20

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat):

It is the only United Nations agency headquartered in Africa.
It was established pursuant to the recommendations of the Habitat I Conference.
The New Urban Agenda, adopted under its aegis, provides a global framework for sustainable urban development.
Its governing body, the UN-Habitat Assembly, consists of all member states of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

UN-Habitat is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya, but it is not the only UN body located in Africa. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is also headquartered in Nairobi.

Statement 2 is correct

UN-Habitat was established in 1978 following the recommendations of the first United Nations Conference on Human Settlements (Habitat I), held in Vancouver, Canada, in 1976.

Statement 3 is correct

The New Urban Agenda was adopted at the Habitat III Conference held in Quito, Ecuador, in 2016. It serves as a global framework to guide sustainable, inclusive, and resilient urban development over the coming decades.

Statement 4 is correct

The UN-Habitat Assembly is the highest decision-making body of UN-Habitat. It comprises all 193 UN Member States and convenes once every four years to set the organization’s strategic priorities and policies.

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to biogas in India, consider the following statements:

Biogas is a carbon-neutral fuel that can be utilized for electricity generation, cooking, and transportation.
Biogas is produced through the aerobic decomposition of organic matter and primarily consists of methane and hydrogen.
Compressed Biogas (CBG) is chemically similar to Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) and can serve as an alternative transport fuel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

Biogas is a renewable and carbon-neutral fuel produced from organic waste. It can be used for cooking, electricity generation, and, after purification and compression, as a transport fuel, thereby contributing to India’s energy security and reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels.

Statement 2 is incorrect

Biogas is produced through the anaerobic digestion (absence of oxygen) of organic matter such as agricultural residues, animal dung, and municipal waste. It primarily consists of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), with only trace amounts of other gases. Hydrogen is not a major constituent of biogas.

Statement 3 is correct

Compressed Biogas (CBG) is chemically similar to Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) and can be used as a substitute in automobiles and industrial applications. Its adoption supports cleaner transportation and aligns with India’s objectives of promoting renewable energy and a circular economy.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Consider the following pairs regarding major skill development initiatives in India:

Initiative	Primary Objective
1. PM-SETU	Upgrading Industrial Training Institutes through a hub-and-spoke model
2. NAVYA	Providing collateral-free credit to traditional artisans
3. SOAR	Promoting artificial intelligence literacy among students and educators
4. PM Vishwakarma	Formalizing traditional craftspeople through training and institutional support

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one
Only two
Only three
All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched

PM-SETU seeks to modernize vocational infrastructure by upgrading 1,000 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) through a hub-and-spoke cluster model.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched

NAVYA is aimed at providing adolescent girls in aspirational districts with training in non-traditional fields such as cybersecurity and other technical domains. The provision of collateral-free credit to traditional artisans is a feature of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme.

Pair 3 is correctly matched

Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) provides structured artificial intelligence courses to school students and educators, promoting early digital and technological literacy.

Pair 4 is correctly matched

PM Vishwakarma supports traditional artisans and craftspeople through skill training, toolkit incentives, and collateral-free credit, facilitating their integration into formal markets.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) in India, consider the following statements:

The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme was established under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, to operationalize the Indian Carbon Market.
Under the scheme, only entities notified under mandatory emission targets are permitted to generate and trade Carbon Credit Certificates (CCCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) was established under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, to provide a regulatory framework for the development and functioning of the Indian Carbon Market (ICM).

Statement 2 is incorrect

The scheme provides for both a compliance and a voluntary market. While obligated entities must meet prescribed emission targets, non-obligated entities can also generate and trade Carbon Credit Certificates through approved voluntary projects. Each Carbon Credit Certificate (CCC) represents the reduction or removal of one tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO₂e).

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

Project 17A, recently seen in the news, refers to:

India’s programme for developing indigenous aircraft carriers for the Indian Navy
The Indian Navy’s programme for constructing next-generation stealth guided-missile frigates
A joint India-France initiative for the development of nuclear-powered submarines
A Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) project for hypersonic cruise missiles

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

Project 17A is the Indian Navy’s advanced stealth frigate programme to build seven next-generation guided-missile warships. These frigates are designed for multi-mission operations, including anti-air, anti-surface, and anti-submarine warfare.
The Nilgiri-class comprises INS Nilgiri, INS Himgiri, INS Taragiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Dunagiri, INS Mahendragiri and the under construction Vindhyagiri.

Answer: (b) The Indian Navy’s programme for constructing next-generation stealth guided-missile frigates; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to Vikram-1, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

Vikram-1 is India’s first privately developed orbital launch vehicle.
It is a four-stage launch vehicle that uses only liquid propulsion systems in all its stages.
It is designed to place payloads of up to 350 kg into Low Earth Orbit.
The mission “Aagaman” marked India’s entry into private-sector orbital launch capability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

Vikram-1, developed by Hyderabad-based Skyroot Aerospace, is India’s first privately developed orbital launch vehicle.

Statement 2 is incorrect

Vikram-1 is a four-stage launch vehicle, but it does not use only liquid propulsion. It incorporates reliable solid-fuel boosters along with a 3D-printed liquid engine.

Statement 3 is correct

The launch vehicle is designed to carry small satellites weighing up to 350 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

Statement 4 is correct

The mission was named “Aagaman” (Arrival) and signifies the beginning of India’s private-sector participation in orbital launches, making India the third country after the United States and China to achieve private-sector orbital launch capability.

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), consider the following statements:

It aims at the integrated development of villages with a Scheduled Caste population exceeding 40% through convergence of various government schemes.
It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
The scheme has been subsumed under the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) has covered over 47,300 villages and declared over 16,700 of them as ‘Adarsh Grams’.

Statement 1 is correct

PMAGY aims to achieve the integrated development of villages having a Scheduled Caste (SC) population of more than 40%. It does so through the convergence of Central and State government schemes and by providing gap-filling assistance where necessary.

Statement 2 is incorrect

PMAGY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) and not by the Ministry of Rural Development.

Statement 3 is correct

PMAGY has been integrated into the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) as its “Adarsh Gram” component, strengthening the government’s efforts toward the socio-economic upliftment of Scheduled Castes.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Prime Minister’s National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (PM-NAPS), consider the following statements:

PM-NAPS is a Central Sector Scheme launched under the Skill India Programme to promote apprenticeship-based training.
Under PM-NAPS, the Central Government reimburses 25% of the prescribed stipend, subject to a maximum of ₹1,500 per month.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

PM-NAPS is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2016 under the Skill India Programme. It seeks to develop a highly skilled workforce by promoting apprenticeship and on-the-job training across various sectors.

Statement 2 is correct

Under PM-NAPS, the Central Government reimburses 25% of the prescribed stipend, subject to a ceiling of ₹1,500 per apprentice per month. Additionally, apprentices from the North-Eastern Region receive a special intervention benefit of an extra ₹1,500 per month.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the National Anti-Doping Framework in India, consider the following statements:

The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) has been granted statutory status under the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022.
Under the principle of strict liability, anti-doping violations are established only if it is proven that the athlete intentionally consumed a prohibited substance.
The National Anti-Doping Appeal Panel, chaired by a retired High Court judge, hears appeals against decisions of the Disciplinary Panel.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation

Government of India officially notified the commencement of the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, and the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025.

Objective: Align India’s anti-doping framework with the World Anti-Doping Code and fulfil India’s obligations under the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport.

Statement 1 is correct

The National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, transformed the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) from a registered society into a statutory authority, strengthening India’s anti-doping institutional framework.

Statement 2 is incorrect

The Act follows the principle of strict liability, under which athletes are held responsible for any prohibited substance found in their samples, irrespective of intent, negligence, or fault. Therefore, proving intentional consumption is not necessary to establish an anti-doping rule violation.

Statement 3 is correct

The National Anti-Doping Appeal Panel is the designated appellate body under the Act. It is chaired by a retired High Court judge and hears appeals against the decisions of the Disciplinary Panel.