Current Affairs MCQs – August 13-14, 2026

 With reference to the Sanchar Mitra Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme seeks to create a grassroots network of student volunteers for digital empowerment, with its activities extending beyond general digital literacy to areas such as telecom security and fraud prevention.
2. The implementation of the scheme is entrusted to the Licensed Service Area (LSA) field offices of the Department of Telecommunications, while participation is open to students in technical institutes pursuing only telecommunications and electronics-related programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Sanchar Mitra Scheme is a volunteer-based digital outreach initiative aimed at engaging students as digital ambassadors. Its mandate covers not merely digital literacy but also citizen-centric telecom services, mobile security and prevention of telecom frauds.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• While the scheme is indeed implemented through the DoT’s Licensed Service Area (LSA) field offices, eligibility is not restricted to telecommunications and electronics. Students pursuing computer science, cybersecurity and other related technical programmes can also participate.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium

 Consider the following pairs

Scheme/Initiative	Description
1. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana	Collateral-free credit to non-corporate, non-farm micro and small enterprises
2. PM SVANidhi	Progressive collateral-free credit support to street vendors through multiple loan tranches
3. Atal Pension Yojana	Guaranteed pension available to subscribers only after attaining 65 years of age
4. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana	Annual renewable life insurance scheme providing ₹2 lakh cover

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) provides collateral-free institutional credit to non-corporate, non-farm micro and small enterprises. The scheme has four loan categories—Shishu, Kishor, Tarun and Tarun Plus—covering enterprises at different stages of development.

Pair 2 is correctly matched

• PM SVANidhi is a micro-credit scheme specifically designed for street vendors. It provides collateral-free working-capital loans through progressive tranches, enabling vendors to access larger amounts based on repayment performance.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched

• Under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), the guaranteed monthly pension becomes payable from the age of 60 years, not 65 years. The subscriber can choose a guaranteed pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month, subject to the applicable contribution.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched

• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme, not a life insurance scheme. It provides accident-related insurance cover. The ₹2 lakh life insurance cover is associated with Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY).

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

 With reference to the Southern African Customs Union (SACU), consider the following statements:

1. SACU is the world’s oldest continuously functioning customs union and comprises five countries of Southern Africa.
2. Member countries of SACU maintain a common external tariff against non-members while allowing duty-free movement of goods produced within the Union.
3. India’s trade with SACU is substantial, with India currently running a trade deficit with the bloc.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

• India and SACU signed the Terms of Reference (ToR) to resume negotiations for a Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) (negotiations started in 2007).

Statement 1 is correct

• The Southern African Customs Union (SACU) comprises five countries—South Africa, Botswana, Namibia, Lesotho and Eswatini. Established in 1910, it is regarded as the world’s oldest continuously functioning customs union.

Statement 2 is correct

• SACU operates as a customs union, meaning its members maintain a Common External Tariff (CET) on goods imported from non-member countries. At the same time, goods produced within the Union can move duty-free among member states.

Statement 3 is correct

• India has substantial trade relations with SACU and currently runs a trade deficit with the bloc, meaning India’s imports from SACU exceed its exports to the grouping.

Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium

 Consider the following description: She ruled the Malwa region in the 18th century and made Maheshwar on the banks of the Narmada her capital. Her reign was marked by extensive temple restoration, public works and promotion of the Maheshwar textile industry. She also adopted a welfare-oriented administrative approach and is remembered for her effective governance. Jawaharlal Nehru described her as “a very able ruler and organizer.”

The above description refers to which one of the following personalities?

1. Rani Durgavati
2. Ahilyabai Holkar
3. Tarabai Bhonsale
4. Rani Abbakka Devi

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The description refers to Ahilyabai Holkar, the renowned 18th-century ruler of the Malwa kingdom. She made Maheshwar her capital and is remembered for her administrative skills, public works, temple restoration and economic initiatives. Her reputation as an effective ruler led Jawaharlal Nehru to describe her as “a very able ruler and organizer.”

Answer: (b) Ahilyabai Holkar; Difficulty Level: Easy

 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Explanation

• Prorogation means the end of a session (not of a Parliament). The President declares the prorogation of both Houses of Parliament
• Adjournment is the suspension of proceedings/sitting for a while, which may be hours, days, or weeks. The Presiding officer of the house can adjourn a sitting of the House of Parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President may prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament from time to time. For prorogation of the House, the President requires the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• Termination of a session of the House by an Order by the President under the above constitutional provision is called ‘prorogation’.

On prorogation of (any) House of Parliament, the President can issue Ordinances (since it is impossible to enact laws when any of the House is not in session) under Article 123 of the IC. If an Ordinance is issued/notified before the order of prorogation, it would be void. The Effect on Pending Business: Bills: a bill pending in Parliament does not lapse by the prorogation of the House. Business pending before Parliamentary Committees: Any business pending before a committee does not lapse by the prorogation of the House. Motions and Resolutions: On the prorogation, all pending notices except those relating to the introduction of Bills lapse and fresh notices must be given for the next session.

Statement 2 is correct

• The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die, when the business of a session is completed.
• Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.

Statement 3 is correct

Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House, is not subject to dissolution. Only the Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution. Unlike a prorogation, a dissolution ends the very life of the existing House, and a new House is constituted after general elections are held.

• In terms of Article 83(2) of IC: The House of the People, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the House:
  • Provided that the said period may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.
• The LS can also be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• The LS can also be dissolved if the President feels that no viable government can be formed after the resignation or fall of a government.

Answer: (c) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Moderate

 The Kuril Islands dispute, involving the four southernmost islands of the Kuril chain, is primarily a territorial dispute between which of the following countries?

1. Russia and China
2. Russia and Japan
3. Japan and South Korea
4. Russia and North Korea

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• The Kuril Islands dispute is between Russia and Japan. The dispute centres on Iturup (Etorofu), Kunashir (Kunashiri), Shikotan and the Habomai Islands. These islands are currently administered by Russia, but Japan claims sovereignty over them, referring to them as the Northern Territories.

Answer: (b) Russia and Japan; Difficulty Level: Easy

 Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
2. Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
3. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

• Indian Railways approved the provision of Kavach Version 4.0 on the Izzatnagar Division of North Eastern Railway (NER).

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) for India – 2030. The Plan is to create a ‘future ready’ Railway system by 2030. The objective of the Plan is to create capacity ahead of demand, which in turn would cater to future growth in demand right up to 2050, increase the modal share of Railways in freight traffic to 45%, and sustain it.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The KAVACH is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. It was developed by the Research Design & Standards Organisation (RDSO) of the Indian Railways. It has been adopted as the National ATP System for Indian Railways. It is one of the cheapest systems with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4) certification. Under SIL-4, the probability of error is 1 in 10,000 years.

Statement 3 is correct

• The ‘Kavach’ system includes RFID tags installed on track sleepers at regular intervals, including in station sections, to provide precise location data to the onboard system.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

With reference to the Black-necked Crane, consider the following statements:

1. In India, the species is associated with both Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh, with the latter supporting a small wintering population.
2. The Black-necked Crane is an obligate herbivore that feeds predominantly on grasses and aquatic plants.
3. It is classified as Near Threatened under the IUCN Red List and is listed in Appendix I of CITES.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The Black-necked Crane is found in Ladakh and also has a small wintering population in Arunachal Pradesh, particularly in the Sangti and Zimithang valleys. It is the State Bird of Ladakh.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The Black-necked Crane is not an obligate herbivore. It is an omnivore, feeding on a variety of food including plant roots, tubers, grains, insects, snails and small vertebrates.

Statement 3 is correct

• The Black-necked Crane is classified as Near Threatened (NT) on the IUCN Red List and is listed under Appendix I of CITES.

Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium

 With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

1. More than 60 per cent of the Asian elephant population is in India.
2. While tigers face the threat of extinction, Asian elephants face the threat of attrition.
3. Kerala has the highest elephant population in India, followed by Karnataka.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Elephants are mainly of two types – African elephants and Asian elephants.
• More than 60 per cent of the Asian elephant population is in India.

Statement 2 is correct

• While the tigers face the threat of extinction, the Asian elephants (WPA: Sch I) face the threat of attrition (gradual reduction).
• Their numbers have not increased or decreased drastically, but there is increasing pressure on their habitats.
• Poaching and land-use changes remain major challenges to elephant populations.
• As both male and female African elephants possess tusks, the impact of ivory poaching is especially severe. African Forest Elephants (CR) have a more prolonged pregnancy than any other mammal -almost 22 months-which further compounds the challenge of conservation.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Karnataka holds the highest number at 6,013, followed by Assam, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Western Ghats account for ~53.17%, followed by the Northeastern Hills, the Shivalik Hills, and Central India.
• India has established 33 designated Elephant Reserves spanning 14 states and ~150 elephant corridors.
• Assam and Tamil Nadu share the highest number of reserves, with 5 each. West Bengal has the highest number of identified and mapped individual elephant migration corridors

Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium