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Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – September 21 2024 "
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {MIH – Personalities} Consider the following statements regarding the Poona Pact (1932):
The Poona Pact abolished the provision for separate electorates for Scheduled Castes and replaced it with reserved seats in legislative bodies.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar wholeheartedly supported the Poona Pact as a long-term solution to caste oppression.
The pact was a result of a compromise between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, influenced by Gandhi’s fast unto death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 and 3 are correct
Background and Negotiation: Poona Pact emerged from the conflict between Gandhi and Ambedkar over separate electorates following Gandhi’s hunger strike 1932.
Elimination of Separate Electorates: It replaced the demand for separate electorates with reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in legislative bodies, facilitating participation in joint electorates.
Reservation of Seats: The pact ensured a specific number of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in provincial legislatures, enhancing their political representation.
Gandhi’s Influence: Gandhi’s fast and moral authority pressured Ambedkar to compromise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ambedkar’s Reluctance: Although Ambedkar agreed to the pact, he saw it as a concession that did not fully address caste oppression and was sceptical of its effectiveness.
Long-term Impact: The Poona Pact laid the groundwork for India’s reservation system, influencing policies to uplift Scheduled Castes and sparking ongoing debates about representation and equality
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 and 3 are correct
Background and Negotiation: Poona Pact emerged from the conflict between Gandhi and Ambedkar over separate electorates following Gandhi’s hunger strike 1932.
Elimination of Separate Electorates: It replaced the demand for separate electorates with reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in legislative bodies, facilitating participation in joint electorates.
Reservation of Seats: The pact ensured a specific number of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in provincial legislatures, enhancing their political representation.
Gandhi’s Influence: Gandhi’s fast and moral authority pressured Ambedkar to compromise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ambedkar’s Reluctance: Although Ambedkar agreed to the pact, he saw it as a concession that did not fully address caste oppression and was sceptical of its effectiveness.
Long-term Impact: The Poona Pact laid the groundwork for India’s reservation system, influencing policies to uplift Scheduled Castes and sparking ongoing debates about representation and equality
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 and 3 are correct
Background and Negotiation: Poona Pact emerged from the conflict between Gandhi and Ambedkar over separate electorates following Gandhi’s hunger strike 1932.
Elimination of Separate Electorates: It replaced the demand for separate electorates with reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in legislative bodies, facilitating participation in joint electorates.
Reservation of Seats: The pact ensured a specific number of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in provincial legislatures, enhancing their political representation.
Gandhi’s Influence: Gandhi’s fast and moral authority pressured Ambedkar to compromise.
Statement 2 is incorrect
Ambedkar’s Reluctance: Although Ambedkar agreed to the pact, he saw it as a concession that did not fully address caste oppression and was sceptical of its effectiveness.
Long-term Impact: The Poona Pact laid the groundwork for India’s reservation system, influencing policies to uplift Scheduled Castes and sparking ongoing debates about representation and equality
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Space} Which of the following best describes a “Tidal Stream”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
Tidal streams are long, thin distributions of starspulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies.
The Gaia mission has mapped nearly two billion stars, allowing astronomers to identify and analyse these tidal streams with unprecedented accuracy.
Answer: (a) Long, thin distributions of stars pulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
Tidal streams are long, thin distributions of starspulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies.
The Gaia mission has mapped nearly two billion stars, allowing astronomers to identify and analyse these tidal streams with unprecedented accuracy.
Answer: (a) Long, thin distributions of stars pulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
Tidal streams are long, thin distributions of starspulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies.
The Gaia mission has mapped nearly two billion stars, allowing astronomers to identify and analyse these tidal streams with unprecedented accuracy.
Answer: (a) Long, thin distributions of stars pulled away from their parent clusters or dwarf galaxies; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Governance – Issues} Consider the following statements regarding the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023:
The Fact Check Unit (FCU) established under the rules has the authority to flag online content as fake, false, or misleading if it pertains to government business.
The Press Information Bureau was intended to be the sole authority to decide which content is fake or misleading under the 2023 amendment.
The rules were struck down due to concerns over violation of Articles 14, 19(1)(a), and 19(1)(g) of the Indian Constitution.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, amended the Information Technology Rules, 2021.
Under the Rules, if the FCU encounters or is informed about any posts that are “fake,” “false,” or contain “misleading” facts about government business, it will flag them to the social media intermediaries.
The online intermediaries would then have to take down such content if they wanted to retain their “safe harbour” (legal immunity with regard to third-party content published by them).
Statement 3 is correct
FCU was violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(a), and 19(1)(g) of the IC.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The amended Rule with FCU as the “sole authority” to decide what content is false, fake, and misleading has a “chilling effect on the right to free speech and freedom of press”.
The lack of definitions for words like fake, false, misleading, and government business made the amendment “vague and overbroad.
Press Information Bureau, which is fully government-controlled, “already has a significant social media presence” and is “already active on it”, and there was “no need” for an FCU.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, amended the Information Technology Rules, 2021.
Under the Rules, if the FCU encounters or is informed about any posts that are “fake,” “false,” or contain “misleading” facts about government business, it will flag them to the social media intermediaries.
The online intermediaries would then have to take down such content if they wanted to retain their “safe harbour” (legal immunity with regard to third-party content published by them).
Statement 3 is correct
FCU was violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(a), and 19(1)(g) of the IC.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The amended Rule with FCU as the “sole authority” to decide what content is false, fake, and misleading has a “chilling effect on the right to free speech and freedom of press”.
The lack of definitions for words like fake, false, misleading, and government business made the amendment “vague and overbroad.
Press Information Bureau, which is fully government-controlled, “already has a significant social media presence” and is “already active on it”, and there was “no need” for an FCU.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, amended the Information Technology Rules, 2021.
Under the Rules, if the FCU encounters or is informed about any posts that are “fake,” “false,” or contain “misleading” facts about government business, it will flag them to the social media intermediaries.
The online intermediaries would then have to take down such content if they wanted to retain their “safe harbour” (legal immunity with regard to third-party content published by them).
Statement 3 is correct
FCU was violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(a), and 19(1)(g) of the IC.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The amended Rule with FCU as the “sole authority” to decide what content is false, fake, and misleading has a “chilling effect on the right to free speech and freedom of press”.
The lack of definitions for words like fake, false, misleading, and government business made the amendment “vague and overbroad.
Press Information Bureau, which is fully government-controlled, “already has a significant social media presence” and is “already active on it”, and there was “no need” for an FCU.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {IR – Groupings} Which of the following organizations releases the “Mutual Evaluation Report” assessing countries’ efforts in combating money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
The Financial Action Task Force released the Mutual Evaluation Report for India.
FATF mutual evaluations are in-depth country reports that analyse the implementation and effectiveness of measures taken against money laundering, terrorist and proliferation financing.
The reports are peer reviews, where members from different countries assess another country.
After analysing a country’s anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing system, mutual evaluations recommend strengthening it further.
Answer:(b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF); Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
The Financial Action Task Force released the Mutual Evaluation Report for India.
FATF mutual evaluations are in-depth country reports that analyse the implementation and effectiveness of measures taken against money laundering, terrorist and proliferation financing.
The reports are peer reviews, where members from different countries assess another country.
After analysing a country’s anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing system, mutual evaluations recommend strengthening it further.
Answer:(b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF); Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
The Financial Action Task Force released the Mutual Evaluation Report for India.
FATF mutual evaluations are in-depth country reports that analyse the implementation and effectiveness of measures taken against money laundering, terrorist and proliferation financing.
The reports are peer reviews, where members from different countries assess another country.
After analysing a country’s anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing system, mutual evaluations recommend strengthening it further.
Answer:(b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF); Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Starlink’s constellation of satellites is impeding the work of astronomers by creating significant radio noise.
Statement II: Starlink’s 2nd generation satellites emit unintended electromagnetic radiation (UEMR) that is more stronger than the interference produced by earlier models.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Starlink’sconstellation of satellites impeding the work of astronomers.
Starlink “constellation” comprises approx. 6,400 working satellites orbiting Earth at an altitude of around 550 km. These satellites deliver high-speed internet to remote places.
Deep space objects (DSOs) such as galaxies and distant stars emit light in the electromagnetic spectrum. This light travels to Earth in waves and is picked up by radio telescopes to provide a discernible picture of these celestial objects.
Starlink’s new 2nd generation satellites create “radio noise” or unintended electromagnetic radiation (UEMR), 32 times stronger than the interference produced by earlier models, which interferes with celestial observations.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Starlink’sconstellation of satellites impeding the work of astronomers.
Starlink “constellation” comprises approx. 6,400 working satellites orbiting Earth at an altitude of around 550 km. These satellites deliver high-speed internet to remote places.
Deep space objects (DSOs) such as galaxies and distant stars emit light in the electromagnetic spectrum. This light travels to Earth in waves and is picked up by radio telescopes to provide a discernible picture of these celestial objects.
Starlink’s new 2nd generation satellites create “radio noise” or unintended electromagnetic radiation (UEMR), 32 times stronger than the interference produced by earlier models, which interferes with celestial observations.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Starlink’sconstellation of satellites impeding the work of astronomers.
Starlink “constellation” comprises approx. 6,400 working satellites orbiting Earth at an altitude of around 550 km. These satellites deliver high-speed internet to remote places.
Deep space objects (DSOs) such as galaxies and distant stars emit light in the electromagnetic spectrum. This light travels to Earth in waves and is picked up by radio telescopes to provide a discernible picture of these celestial objects.
Starlink’s new 2nd generation satellites create “radio noise” or unintended electromagnetic radiation (UEMR), 32 times stronger than the interference produced by earlier models, which interferes with celestial observations.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {MoHFW – Initiatives} The U-WIN Portal, developed by the Union Health Ministry, is primarily associated with which of the following services?
Correct
Explanation
The U-WIN Portal, developed by the Union Health Ministry for digitising vaccination services, is operational on a pilot basis.
Features of the U-WIN Portal:
Citizen-Centric Services: Offers ‘anytime access’ and ‘anywhere’ vaccination services.
Self-Registration: Citizens can self-register using the U-WIN web portal or mobile application.
Multilingual Support: Available in 11 regional languages, including Hindi.
Facilitates creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) IDs.
Answer: (b) Digital Vaccination Services; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Agri – Diary} Consider the following statements:
India emerged as the world’s largest milk producer in 2022-23, achieving record production levels.
The National Programme for Dairy Development (NDDB) 2.0 aims to support 1,000 Multipurpose Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies (MPACSs) with financial assistance of Rs 40,000 per MPACS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
India is the largest milk-producing country in the world, with production reaching 230.58 million tonnes during 2022-23. In 1951-52, the country produced just 17 million tonnes of milk.
National Programme for Dairy Development (NDDB) 2.0, a new central sector scheme under the Department of Animal Husbandryand Dairying will assist 1,000 Multipurpose Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies (MPACSs) at the rate of Rs 40,000per MPACS.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
India is the largest milk-producing country in the world, with production reaching 230.58 million tonnes during 2022-23. In 1951-52, the country produced just 17 million tonnes of milk.
National Programme for Dairy Development (NDDB) 2.0, a new central sector scheme under the Department of Animal Husbandryand Dairying will assist 1,000 Multipurpose Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies (MPACSs) at the rate of Rs 40,000per MPACS.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
India is the largest milk-producing country in the world, with production reaching 230.58 million tonnes during 2022-23. In 1951-52, the country produced just 17 million tonnes of milk.
National Programme for Dairy Development (NDDB) 2.0, a new central sector scheme under the Department of Animal Husbandryand Dairying will assist 1,000 Multipurpose Primary Agricultural Credit Cooperative Societies (MPACSs) at the rate of Rs 40,000per MPACS.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
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