September 18-2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Jute cultivation helps in carbon sequestration, playing a role in mitigating climate change by absorbing atmospheric carbon.
• It is biodegradable and serves as an eco-friendly alternative to plastic products, helping to reduce environmental pollution.
• It acts as a soil saver, preventing soil erosion and maintaining soil fertility, which is crucial for sustainable agriculture.
• The jute industry supports approximately 14 million livelihoods in India, contributing to rural economies and enhancing community resilience against climate impacts.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Jute requires minimal fertilizers and pesticides, making it a more sustainable option compared to resource-intensive crops like cotton.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Jute is adaptable to varying climatic conditions, making it a viable crop even with changing weather patterns, which contradicts the statement that it is vulnerable to climate change.
• Initiatives for the Jute Sector:
  • Jute-Improved Cultivation and Retting Exercises (ICARE): To enhance jute farming practices with certified seeds, mechanisation & improved retting techniques to increase farmers’ income and productivity.
  • Jute Diversification Scheme: Supports the development of new jute-based products, encouraging innovation and diversification within the industry.
  • Minimum Support Price (MSP) Enhancement: The government increased the MSP for raw jute from ₹500 crore to ₹700 crore, ensuring better price stability for farmers.
  • Incentive Scheme for Acquisition of Plant & Machinery (ISAPM): Provides financial incentives to modernise jute mills and support technology upgrades.
  • Jute Smart Scheme: To enhance the jute sector through technology, innovation, and sustainable practices, promoting eco-friendly alternatives.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• Provident fund savings are mandatory for firms with 20 or more employees, not 15, under the Employees’ Provident Funds Act of 1952.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Both employees and employers are required to contribute 12% of the employee’s salary towards the provident fund, not just the employer.

Statement 3 is correct

• Employees can withdraw up to ₹1 lakh from their provident fund account for personal needs, subject to certain conditions.
• A person can withdraw in the first six months of their new job.
• The government has allowed organisations not part of the EPFO to transition to the State-run retirement fund manager.
• Certain businesses can operate their own private retirement schemes due to an exemption, primarily because their funds were established before the EPFO was created in 1954.

Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Cheetahs were previously naturally found in India. They were declared extinct in India in 1952. Overhunting and habitat loss were the primary reasons.
• The Supreme Court cleared the plans to reintroduce cheetahs in India on an experimental basis.
• Kuno Palpur National Park (748 km2) in MP was the site chosen for the reintroduction project, and the first batch of eight cheetahs (five females and three males) from Namibia were reintroduced.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• The reintroduction of cheetahs into Kuno Palpur National Park is not in a fenced protected area. It is the world’s first intercontinental translocation of a carnivore into an unfenced protected area.
• The Government has constituted a Task Force for monitoring cheetah introduction. The task force will be in force for a period of two years.
• It will monitor the health status of cheetahs, upkeep of the quarantine enclosures, and open cheetah habitat for eco-tourism, etc.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• It is a statutory body established in 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
• It is responsible for the protection and promotion of the rights of children, including monitoring the implementation of child-specific laws.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• It consists of Chairperson and six members appointed by the Central Government.
• Out of the six members, at least two should be women.
• The Chairperson is appointed on the recommendation of a 3-member selection committee chaired by the minister-in-charge of the Ministry or the Department of Women and Child Development.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• The Chairperson holds office for a term of three years or 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The members hold the office for a term of three years or 60 years, whichever is earlier.
• They are not eligible for appointments for more than two terms.

Answer: (d) None of the above; Difficulty Level: Hard

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The UN was founded on October 24, 1945 based on the Atlantic Charter, which outlined the Allied goals for the post-World War II world, including the establishment of a permanent system of general security.
• It was instituted as a successor to the League of Nations which was closed when WW II broke out in 1939.

Statement 2 is correct

• New members are admitted to the UN through the Security Council’s recommendation, followed by a two-thirds vote from the General Assembly.
• This process ensures that new members align with the UN’s values and principles.

Statement 3 is correct

• The UN Security Council (UNSC) is the only UN body that has the authority to issue legally binding resolutions on member states.
• As one of the six main organs of the UN, the UNSC is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Medium

Correct

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Coelacanths are lobe-finned fish that first appeared during the Early Devonian epoch.
• Research reveals that coelacanth evolution is significantly influenced by tectonic plate activity, with new species emerging more frequently during heightened tectonic movement that alters habitats.
• They are called living fossils due to their minimal evolutionary change.
• Inhabiting deep-sea environments, they reproduce via ovoviviparity, where embryos develop inside the mother and are born as fully formed young after a gestation period of about one year.

Option (a) is incorrect

• Gingko Biloba is a tree species that has existed for nearly 300 million years and has few close relatives, making it a classic example of a living fossil.

Option (c) is incorrect

• Tuatara is a reptile from New Zealand that has changed little since the Mesozoic era, often cited as a living fossil due to its primitive characteristics.

Option (d) is incorrect

• Nautilus is a cephalopod that has remained relatively unchanged for millions of years and provides insights into early molluscan evolution.

Answer: (b) Coelacanth; Difficulty Level: Medium

Correct

Explanation

Committee 1 is correct

• T.S. Krishnamurthy Committee, 2005, is related to free and fair elections and has recommended using VVPAT slips as the official record.

Committee 2 is correct

• Justice V.S. Malimath Committee is noteworthy for proposing electoral reforms addressing money power, media bias, and unequal access to state resources as a priority.

Committee 3 is correct

• The Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections emphasised transparency in the electoral process.
  • It suggested that only recognized national and state parties receive funding from the government.

Committee 4 is incorrect

• Rangarajan Committee was formed in 2012 by the Government of India to estimate poverty levels in the country.
  • It used Tendulkar methodology which includes calorie consumption, health and education expenses and other basic needs to calculate the poverty level.

Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard

Correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect

• As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019, LG has a much bigger role than the state Assembly. The LG shall, in the exercise of his functions, act at his discretion in a matter:
  • Which falls outside the purview of the powers conferred on the Legislative Assembly
  • In which he is required by or under any law to act in his discretion or to exercise any judicial functions
  • Related to All India Services and Anti-Corruption Bureau.

Statement 2 is correct

• As per the provisions of the act, any Bill or amendment shall not be introduced in the Assembly except on the recommendation of the LG, if such Bill deals with, among other aspects, the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of the Union territory.

Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Hard