October 29 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – October 29 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {Governance – Issues} Which one of the following bodies is not established as a Constitutional body?
Correct
Explanation
- Constitutional bodies are institutions explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, established to oversee key functions and uphold checks and balances in governance.
- Characteristics of Constitutional bodies:
- It was created directly by the Constitution.
- Can only be modified or dissolved through a constitutional amendment.
- Operates independently and enjoys a high degree of autonomy.
Option (a) is a constitutional body
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a Constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution to oversee elections.
Option (b) is a constitutional body
- The Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) is a Constitutional authority established under Article 148 to audit government finances.
Option (c) is the correct answer
- The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body, not a Constitutional one. It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
- Statutory Bodies are established through a specific law or act of Parliament or state legislatures and per-form regulatory or advisory roles within defined frameworks.
- Characteristics of Statutory bodies:
- It is established by a statute (law), not directly by the Constitution.
- Their powers, duties, and functions are detailed in the act or statute that establishes them.
- It can be modified or dissolved through an amendment to the act.
Option (d) is a constitutional body
- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a Constitutional body under Article 315, responsible for recruiting for civil services.
Answer: (c) National Commission for Minorities | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Constitutional bodies are institutions explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, established to oversee key functions and uphold checks and balances in governance.
- Characteristics of Constitutional bodies:
- It was created directly by the Constitution.
- Can only be modified or dissolved through a constitutional amendment.
- Operates independently and enjoys a high degree of autonomy.
Option (a) is a constitutional body
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a Constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution to oversee elections.
Option (b) is a constitutional body
- The Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) is a Constitutional authority established under Article 148 to audit government finances.
Option (c) is the correct answer
- The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body, not a Constitutional one. It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
- Statutory Bodies are established through a specific law or act of Parliament or state legislatures and per-form regulatory or advisory roles within defined frameworks.
- Characteristics of Statutory bodies:
- It is established by a statute (law), not directly by the Constitution.
- Their powers, duties, and functions are detailed in the act or statute that establishes them.
- It can be modified or dissolved through an amendment to the act.
Option (d) is a constitutional body
- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a Constitutional body under Article 315, responsible for recruiting for civil services.
Answer: (c) National Commission for Minorities | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Constitutional bodies are institutions explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, established to oversee key functions and uphold checks and balances in governance.
- Characteristics of Constitutional bodies:
- It was created directly by the Constitution.
- Can only be modified or dissolved through a constitutional amendment.
- Operates independently and enjoys a high degree of autonomy.
Option (a) is a constitutional body
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a Constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution to oversee elections.
Option (b) is a constitutional body
- The Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) is a Constitutional authority established under Article 148 to audit government finances.
Option (c) is the correct answer
- The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body, not a Constitutional one. It was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
- Statutory Bodies are established through a specific law or act of Parliament or state legislatures and per-form regulatory or advisory roles within defined frameworks.
- Characteristics of Statutory bodies:
- It is established by a statute (law), not directly by the Constitution.
- Their powers, duties, and functions are detailed in the act or statute that establishes them.
- It can be modified or dissolved through an amendment to the act.
Option (d) is a constitutional body
- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a Constitutional body under Article 315, responsible for recruiting for civil services.
Answer: (c) National Commission for Minorities | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Social Sector – Health – Issues} Which of the following best explains the term “Patent Evergreening”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Patent Evergreening is a tactic in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor changes, delaying generics, and keeping prices high.
- Legal Framework against Patent Evergreening:
- Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act (IPA), 1970, prevents patents on minor drug modifications that lack significant efficacy improvements. For example, Novartis’s Glivec patent was rejected in 2013.
- Section 3(e) of IPA 1970: Prohibits patents on mixtures of known substances unless a synergistic effect is demonstrated, ensuring only genuine innovations receive patent protection.
- Section 3(i) of IPA 1970: Disallows patents on medical treatment methods, ensuring essential healthcare practices remain accessible and affordable to the public.
- Patent Opposition Mechanisms enable challenges to patent applications and granted patents, allowing public intervention to prevent frivolous patents.
Answer: (b) A strategy in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor modifications, delaying the entry of generic drugs, and maintaining high prices | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Patent Evergreening is a tactic in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor changes, delaying generics, and keeping prices high.
- Legal Framework against Patent Evergreening:
- Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act (IPA), 1970, prevents patents on minor drug modifications that lack significant efficacy improvements. For example, Novartis’s Glivec patent was rejected in 2013.
- Section 3(e) of IPA 1970: Prohibits patents on mixtures of known substances unless a synergistic effect is demonstrated, ensuring only genuine innovations receive patent protection.
- Section 3(i) of IPA 1970: Disallows patents on medical treatment methods, ensuring essential healthcare practices remain accessible and affordable to the public.
- Patent Opposition Mechanisms enable challenges to patent applications and granted patents, allowing public intervention to prevent frivolous patents.
Answer: (b) A strategy in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor modifications, delaying the entry of generic drugs, and maintaining high prices | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Patent Evergreening is a tactic in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor changes, delaying generics, and keeping prices high.
- Legal Framework against Patent Evergreening:
- Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act (IPA), 1970, prevents patents on minor drug modifications that lack significant efficacy improvements. For example, Novartis’s Glivec patent was rejected in 2013.
- Section 3(e) of IPA 1970: Prohibits patents on mixtures of known substances unless a synergistic effect is demonstrated, ensuring only genuine innovations receive patent protection.
- Section 3(i) of IPA 1970: Disallows patents on medical treatment methods, ensuring essential healthcare practices remain accessible and affordable to the public.
- Patent Opposition Mechanisms enable challenges to patent applications and granted patents, allowing public intervention to prevent frivolous patents.
Answer: (b) A strategy in which companies extend a drug’s patent by making minor modifications, delaying the entry of generic drugs, and maintaining high prices | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Bio – Diseases} Consider the following statements regarding Stereotactic Radiation Therapy (SRT):
- It is an advanced form of radiotherapy that uses highly focused radiation beams to precisely destroy cancer cells, minimizing damage to surrounding tissues.
- It can help treat prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Stereotactic Radiation Therapy (SRT) is an advanced form of radiotherapy that uses high doses without involving the surgery of highly fo-cused radiation beams to destroy cancer cells precisely, minimising damage to surrounding tissues.
- Comparison with Traditional Radiation: It can treat cancer in fewer sessions (one to five sessions over one to two weeks) compared to conventional radiation therapy (20 to 40 sessions over weeks or months).
- Reduced Side Effects: SRT has shown lower impacts on sexual function when compared to prostatec-tomy (surgical removal of the prostate).
Statement 2 is correct
- SRT can help treat prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
- Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that begins in the prostate gland, which is a small, walnut-sized gland in men that produces seminal fluid.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Stereotactic Radiation Therapy (SRT) is an advanced form of radiotherapy that uses high doses without involving the surgery of highly fo-cused radiation beams to destroy cancer cells precisely, minimising damage to surrounding tissues.
- Comparison with Traditional Radiation: It can treat cancer in fewer sessions (one to five sessions over one to two weeks) compared to conventional radiation therapy (20 to 40 sessions over weeks or months).
- Reduced Side Effects: SRT has shown lower impacts on sexual function when compared to prostatec-tomy (surgical removal of the prostate).
Statement 2 is correct
- SRT can help treat prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
- Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that begins in the prostate gland, which is a small, walnut-sized gland in men that produces seminal fluid.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Stereotactic Radiation Therapy (SRT) is an advanced form of radiotherapy that uses high doses without involving the surgery of highly fo-cused radiation beams to destroy cancer cells precisely, minimising damage to surrounding tissues.
- Comparison with Traditional Radiation: It can treat cancer in fewer sessions (one to five sessions over one to two weeks) compared to conventional radiation therapy (20 to 40 sessions over weeks or months).
- Reduced Side Effects: SRT has shown lower impacts on sexual function when compared to prostatec-tomy (surgical removal of the prostate).
Statement 2 is correct
- SRT can help treat prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.
- Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that begins in the prostate gland, which is a small, walnut-sized gland in men that produces seminal fluid.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 | Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Species} With reference to the Khulan Conservation Day, consider the following statements:
- Mongolia designates October 25 as ‘Khulan Conservation Day’ to conserve the Mongolian Wild Ass, which represents the largest population of the Asiatic Wild Ass in the world.
- India is home to two relatives of the Khulan: The Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass (Equus kiang) and the Ghudkhur or Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur).
- The Khulan is an Endangered species and primarily lives in the south of Mongolia, particularly in the Gobi Desert area.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Mongolia designates October 25 as ‘Khulan Conservation Day’ to conserve the Mongolian Wild Ass.
- Khulan or Mongolian Wild Ass is a member of the Equidae family, which consists of horses, donkeys and zebras. It represents the largest population of the Asiatic Wild Ass in the world.
Statement 2 is correct
- India is home to two cousins of the Khulan: The Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass (Equus kiang) and the Ghudkhur or Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur).
- Distribution: Mainly live in south of Mongolia, in the Gobi Desert area (80% of the global population), with small populations in Northern China.
- Diet: Are herbivorous mammals. They feed on grasses, herbs and vegetation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Conservation Status: IUCN: Near Threatened
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Mongolia designates October 25 as ‘Khulan Conservation Day’ to conserve the Mongolian Wild Ass.
- Khulan or Mongolian Wild Ass is a member of the Equidae family, which consists of horses, donkeys and zebras. It represents the largest population of the Asiatic Wild Ass in the world.
Statement 2 is correct
- India is home to two cousins of the Khulan: The Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass (Equus kiang) and the Ghudkhur or Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur).
- Distribution: Mainly live in south of Mongolia, in the Gobi Desert area (80% of the global population), with small populations in Northern China.
- Diet: Are herbivorous mammals. They feed on grasses, herbs and vegetation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Conservation Status: IUCN: Near Threatened
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Mongolia designates October 25 as ‘Khulan Conservation Day’ to conserve the Mongolian Wild Ass.
- Khulan or Mongolian Wild Ass is a member of the Equidae family, which consists of horses, donkeys and zebras. It represents the largest population of the Asiatic Wild Ass in the world.
Statement 2 is correct
- India is home to two cousins of the Khulan: The Kiang or Tibetan Wild Ass (Equus kiang) and the Ghudkhur or Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur).
- Distribution: Mainly live in south of Mongolia, in the Gobi Desert area (80% of the global population), with small populations in Northern China.
- Diet: Are herbivorous mammals. They feed on grasses, herbs and vegetation.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Conservation Status: IUCN: Near Threatened
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Envi – Species} Which of the following seas are connected by the Taiwan Strait?
Correct
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Taiwan Strait is a narrow waterway, approximately 180 km (112 miles) wide, separating Taiwan from mainland China. It connects two significant seas; the East China Sea (to the north) and the South China Sea (to the south).
- The Taiwan Strait plays a vital role in regional maritime trade, security and geopolitics, fishing and marine resources and is a sensitive region due to Taiwan’s complex relationship with China, territorial disputes, military tensions and economic interests.
- It is a critical passage for international shipping, oil and gas transportation, fishing vessels and cruise ships.
- It is considered one of the busiest shipping lanes in the region with nearly 90% of Chinese, Japanese, and Korean trade with Asia, the Middle East, and India passes through this strait
- The Taiwan Strait’s location allows for access to the Pacific Ocean, connection to major shipping lanes and proximity to regional economic hubs such as Hong Kong, Shanghai etc.
Answer: (b) East China Sea and South China Sea | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Taiwan Strait is a narrow waterway, approximately 180 km (112 miles) wide, separating Taiwan from mainland China. It connects two significant seas; the East China Sea (to the north) and the South China Sea (to the south).
- The Taiwan Strait plays a vital role in regional maritime trade, security and geopolitics, fishing and marine resources and is a sensitive region due to Taiwan’s complex relationship with China, territorial disputes, military tensions and economic interests.
- It is a critical passage for international shipping, oil and gas transportation, fishing vessels and cruise ships.
- It is considered one of the busiest shipping lanes in the region with nearly 90% of Chinese, Japanese, and Korean trade with Asia, the Middle East, and India passes through this strait
- The Taiwan Strait’s location allows for access to the Pacific Ocean, connection to major shipping lanes and proximity to regional economic hubs such as Hong Kong, Shanghai etc.
Answer: (b) East China Sea and South China Sea | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Envi – RE} Which of the following agreements or protocols are associated with phasing out of coal?
- Paris Agreement
- Kyoto Protocol
- Nagoya Protocol
- Stockholm Agreement
Select the correct answers using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
1 is correct
- Paris Agreement (2015) encourages transition to low-carbon energy sources and aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C.
- It implicitly promotes coal phase-out through Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), clean energy targets and carbon pricing.
2 is correct
- Kyoto Protocol (1997) sets binding emissions reduction target and promotes clean energy and reduction of greenhouse gases.
- It involves reducing coal usage through Emissions trading, Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Joint Implementation (JI).
3 is incorrect
- Nagoya Protocol (2010) focuses on biodiversity conservation and regulates access to genetic resources.
- It has no direct connection to coal phase-out.
4 is incorrect
- Stockholm Agreement mainly refers to the Stockholm Convention (2001) on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and it aims to eliminate harmful chemicals.
- There is no such agreement related to coal phase-out.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
1 is correct
- Paris Agreement (2015) encourages transition to low-carbon energy sources and aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C.
- It implicitly promotes coal phase-out through Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), clean energy targets and carbon pricing.
2 is correct
- Kyoto Protocol (1997) sets binding emissions reduction target and promotes clean energy and reduction of greenhouse gases.
- It involves reducing coal usage through Emissions trading, Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Joint Implementation (JI).
3 is incorrect
- Nagoya Protocol (2010) focuses on biodiversity conservation and regulates access to genetic resources.
- It has no direct connection to coal phase-out.
4 is incorrect
- Stockholm Agreement mainly refers to the Stockholm Convention (2001) on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and it aims to eliminate harmful chemicals.
- There is no such agreement related to coal phase-out.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
1 is correct
- Paris Agreement (2015) encourages transition to low-carbon energy sources and aims to limit global warming to well below 2°C.
- It implicitly promotes coal phase-out through Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), clean energy targets and carbon pricing.
2 is correct
- Kyoto Protocol (1997) sets binding emissions reduction target and promotes clean energy and reduction of greenhouse gases.
- It involves reducing coal usage through Emissions trading, Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and Joint Implementation (JI).
3 is incorrect
- Nagoya Protocol (2010) focuses on biodiversity conservation and regulates access to genetic resources.
- It has no direct connection to coal phase-out.
4 is incorrect
- Stockholm Agreement mainly refers to the Stockholm Convention (2001) on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and it aims to eliminate harmful chemicals.
- There is no such agreement related to coal phase-out.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {MIH – Movements} Consider the following statements regarding Kittur rebellion:
- Rani Chennamma was the ruler of Kittur when the Doctrine of Lapse was applied to the state.
- The Kittur army successfully recaptured the Kittur Fort, which had been seized by the British during Shivalingappa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Kittur Rebellion was a significant uprising against British rule in India, led by Rani Chennamma of Kittur, a small principality in present-day Karnataka.
- The causes of the rebellion were:
- Doctrine of Lapse: The British East India Company’s policy of annexing Indian states without male heirs.
- Refusal to recognize Shivalingappa: The British refused to recognize Rani Chennamma’s adopted son as the rightful heir.
- Economic exploitation: British taxation and revenue policies harmed Kittur’s economy.
- Rani Chennamma was indeed the ruler of Kittur when the Doctrine of Lapse was applied to the state in 1824 after the death of her son.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Although the Kittur army had initial Victory with Rani Chennamma’s forces defeating, they were unable to protect (not recapture) the Kittur Fort.
- The British captured the fort on December 3, 1824 (during the rebellion), and Rani Chennamma was imprisoned. With guerrilla Warfare (1825-1829), Rani Chennamma and Chittur continued to resist the British rule.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Kittur Rebellion was a significant uprising against British rule in India, led by Rani Chennamma of Kittur, a small principality in present-day Karnataka.
- The causes of the rebellion were:
- Doctrine of Lapse: The British East India Company’s policy of annexing Indian states without male heirs.
- Refusal to recognize Shivalingappa: The British refused to recognize Rani Chennamma’s adopted son as the rightful heir.
- Economic exploitation: British taxation and revenue policies harmed Kittur’s economy.
- Rani Chennamma was indeed the ruler of Kittur when the Doctrine of Lapse was applied to the state in 1824 after the death of her son.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Although the Kittur army had initial Victory with Rani Chennamma’s forces defeating, they were unable to protect (not recapture) the Kittur Fort.
- The British captured the fort on December 3, 1824 (during the rebellion), and Rani Chennamma was imprisoned. With guerrilla Warfare (1825-1829), Rani Chennamma and Chittur continued to resist the British rule.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The Kittur Rebellion was a significant uprising against British rule in India, led by Rani Chennamma of Kittur, a small principality in present-day Karnataka.
- The causes of the rebellion were:
- Doctrine of Lapse: The British East India Company’s policy of annexing Indian states without male heirs.
- Refusal to recognize Shivalingappa: The British refused to recognize Rani Chennamma’s adopted son as the rightful heir.
- Economic exploitation: British taxation and revenue policies harmed Kittur’s economy.
- Rani Chennamma was indeed the ruler of Kittur when the Doctrine of Lapse was applied to the state in 1824 after the death of her son.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Although the Kittur army had initial Victory with Rani Chennamma’s forces defeating, they were unable to protect (not recapture) the Kittur Fort.
- The British captured the fort on December 3, 1824 (during the rebellion), and Rani Chennamma was imprisoned. With guerrilla Warfare (1825-1829), Rani Chennamma and Chittur continued to resist the British rule.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {S&T – Defence} Consider the following statements regarding Fast Patrolling Vehicles (FPVs) ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’, recently launched by the Indian Coast Guard:
- Statement – I: They are high-speed, agile vessels smaller and more compact than larger patrol ships.
- Statement – II: They are designed for long-duration coastal or offshore surveillance and patrolling operations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct
- The Indian Coast Guard recently launched two Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs), ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’, to enhance maritime security and surveillance.
- FPVs are designed for rapid response, with speeds exceeding 30 knots (56 km/h) and are highly manoeuvrable, enabling quick turns and intercepts.
- They are smaller than larger patrol ships, allowing for shallow draft operations and feature modern navigation, communication, and surveillance systems.
- They monitor coastal areas for suspicious activities, intercept and investigate suspicious vessels, respond to maritime distress calls and enforce maritime regulations and laws.
Statement I is correct
- FPVs ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’ are indeed high-speed, agile vessels smaller and more compact than larger patrol ships.
Statement II is incorrect
- FPVs are not designed for long-duration coastal or offshore surveillance and patrolling operations. Instead, they are optimized for short-duration, high-speed operations.
- Larger, more endurance-capable vessels, such as Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) or Coastal Security Ships, are better suited for long-duration operations
Answer: (c) Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct
- The Indian Coast Guard recently launched two Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs), ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’, to enhance maritime security and surveillance.
- FPVs are designed for rapid response, with speeds exceeding 30 knots (56 km/h) and are highly manoeuvrable, enabling quick turns and intercepts.
- They are smaller than larger patrol ships, allowing for shallow draft operations and feature modern navigation, communication, and surveillance systems.
- They monitor coastal areas for suspicious activities, intercept and investigate suspicious vessels, respond to maritime distress calls and enforce maritime regulations and laws.
Statement I is correct
- FPVs ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’ are indeed high-speed, agile vessels smaller and more compact than larger patrol ships.
Statement II is incorrect
- FPVs are not designed for long-duration coastal or offshore surveillance and patrolling operations. Instead, they are optimized for short-duration, high-speed operations.
- Larger, more endurance-capable vessels, such as Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) or Coastal Security Ships, are better suited for long-duration operations
Answer: (c) Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct
- The Indian Coast Guard recently launched two Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs), ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’, to enhance maritime security and surveillance.
- FPVs are designed for rapid response, with speeds exceeding 30 knots (56 km/h) and are highly manoeuvrable, enabling quick turns and intercepts.
- They are smaller than larger patrol ships, allowing for shallow draft operations and feature modern navigation, communication, and surveillance systems.
- They monitor coastal areas for suspicious activities, intercept and investigate suspicious vessels, respond to maritime distress calls and enforce maritime regulations and laws.
Statement I is correct
- FPVs ‘Adamya’ and ‘Akshar’ are indeed high-speed, agile vessels smaller and more compact than larger patrol ships.
Statement II is incorrect
- FPVs are not designed for long-duration coastal or offshore surveillance and patrolling operations. Instead, they are optimized for short-duration, high-speed operations.
- Larger, more endurance-capable vessels, such as Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) or Coastal Security Ships, are better suited for long-duration operations
Answer: (c) Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct | Difficulty Level: Medium
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