
October 27-28 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – October 27-28 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {Governance – Welfare} Consider the following statements regarding the Aadhaar card:
- Aadhaar is a unique 10-digit identification number assigned by the Unique Identification Authority of India to every resident of India.
- Aadhaar cards can be used as a proof of identity as well as a proof of date of birth (DOB), but not as a proof of citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Aadhaar is a unique 12-digit identification number assigned by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to every resident of India.
- The SC ruled that Aadhaar cards cannot be used as proof of date of birth (DOB). The case was related to compensation in cases of death under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (MVA).
- The SC referred to the 2018 Constitutional Bench judgement that Aadhaar primarily serves as proof of identity, not age. Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act 2016 specifies that Aadhaar does not establish citizenship or domicile rights.
- Section 94 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 specifies that the matriculation or equivalent certificate, not Aadhaar, should be used to determine age, especially in juvenile cases.
-
- In the State of Maharashtra vs. UIDAI (2022), the Bombay High court clarified Aadhaar’s limited use as proof of identity and residence only—not citizenship or date of birth.
- Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) issued a memorandum stating that Aadhaar is not inherently proof of date of birth, as it relies on supporting documents.
- Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) removed Aadhaar from its accepted list of documents for date of birth verification in its retirement fund administration.
-
- Originally introduced by the UPA government, Aadhaar aimed to provide unique IDs to economically weaker sections to streamline access to government schemes.
-
Expansion and Legislative Journey:
- Early Legislative Challenges: Political and administrative disagreements initially delayed Aadhaar’s adoption. The National Identification Authority of India (NIAI) Bill faced rejections and was withdrawn, primarily due to security concerns and issues over illegal immigration.
- 2016 Passage as Money Bill: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill was introduced in 2016 as a money bill.
-
Current Status:
- Voluntary Registration: Despite being ‘voluntary‘, Aadhaar registration has expanded significantly.
- Private Entities: These are used by companies like Amazon for identity verification.
- Mandatory for Employment: Aadhaar made mandatory for workers under the MGNREGS.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Aadhaar is a unique 12-digit identification number assigned by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to every resident of India.
- The SC ruled that Aadhaar cards cannot be used as proof of date of birth (DOB). The case was related to compensation in cases of death under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (MVA).
- The SC referred to the 2018 Constitutional Bench judgement that Aadhaar primarily serves as proof of identity, not age. Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act 2016 specifies that Aadhaar does not establish citizenship or domicile rights.
- Section 94 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 specifies that the matriculation or equivalent certificate, not Aadhaar, should be used to determine age, especially in juvenile cases.
-
- In the State of Maharashtra vs. UIDAI (2022), the Bombay High court clarified Aadhaar’s limited use as proof of identity and residence only—not citizenship or date of birth.
- Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) issued a memorandum stating that Aadhaar is not inherently proof of date of birth, as it relies on supporting documents.
- Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) removed Aadhaar from its accepted list of documents for date of birth verification in its retirement fund administration.
-
- Originally introduced by the UPA government, Aadhaar aimed to provide unique IDs to economically weaker sections to streamline access to government schemes.
-
Expansion and Legislative Journey:
- Early Legislative Challenges: Political and administrative disagreements initially delayed Aadhaar’s adoption. The National Identification Authority of India (NIAI) Bill faced rejections and was withdrawn, primarily due to security concerns and issues over illegal immigration.
- 2016 Passage as Money Bill: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill was introduced in 2016 as a money bill.
-
Current Status:
- Voluntary Registration: Despite being ‘voluntary‘, Aadhaar registration has expanded significantly.
- Private Entities: These are used by companies like Amazon for identity verification.
- Mandatory for Employment: Aadhaar made mandatory for workers under the MGNREGS.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Aadhaar is a unique 12-digit identification number assigned by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to every resident of India.
- The SC ruled that Aadhaar cards cannot be used as proof of date of birth (DOB). The case was related to compensation in cases of death under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (MVA).
- The SC referred to the 2018 Constitutional Bench judgement that Aadhaar primarily serves as proof of identity, not age. Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act 2016 specifies that Aadhaar does not establish citizenship or domicile rights.
- Section 94 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 specifies that the matriculation or equivalent certificate, not Aadhaar, should be used to determine age, especially in juvenile cases.
-
- In the State of Maharashtra vs. UIDAI (2022), the Bombay High court clarified Aadhaar’s limited use as proof of identity and residence only—not citizenship or date of birth.
- Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) issued a memorandum stating that Aadhaar is not inherently proof of date of birth, as it relies on supporting documents.
- Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) removed Aadhaar from its accepted list of documents for date of birth verification in its retirement fund administration.
-
- Originally introduced by the UPA government, Aadhaar aimed to provide unique IDs to economically weaker sections to streamline access to government schemes.
-
Expansion and Legislative Journey:
- Early Legislative Challenges: Political and administrative disagreements initially delayed Aadhaar’s adoption. The National Identification Authority of India (NIAI) Bill faced rejections and was withdrawn, primarily due to security concerns and issues over illegal immigration.
- 2016 Passage as Money Bill: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill was introduced in 2016 as a money bill.
-
Current Status:
- Voluntary Registration: Despite being ‘voluntary‘, Aadhaar registration has expanded significantly.
- Private Entities: These are used by companies like Amazon for identity verification.
- Mandatory for Employment: Aadhaar made mandatory for workers under the MGNREGS.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {IR – Issues} Which of the following statements is the best description of the term ”protectionism”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Protectionism refers to economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations.
-
- Protectionist Policies Pre-1990s: India’s post-independence strategy used high tariffs (averaging 125% in the 1980s) to shield domestic industries and limit imports and foreign investment.
- 1991 Liberalization Shift: Facing a financial crisis, India cut tariffs from 125% to 35% by 2001, attracting FDI and boosting GDP growth to 7-8% annually in the early 2000s.
- Return to Protectionism Post-2017: From 2017, tariffs on imports like electronics rose (10% to 20%) under “Make in India,” reducing imports from China by 30% and promoting local production.
- Atmanirbhar Bharat (2020) raised duties to support self-reliance, making India a competitive hub in renewable energy. E.g. 15% duty on solar components.
Answer: (c) Economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Protectionism refers to economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations.
-
- Protectionist Policies Pre-1990s: India’s post-independence strategy used high tariffs (averaging 125% in the 1980s) to shield domestic industries and limit imports and foreign investment.
- 1991 Liberalization Shift: Facing a financial crisis, India cut tariffs from 125% to 35% by 2001, attracting FDI and boosting GDP growth to 7-8% annually in the early 2000s.
- Return to Protectionism Post-2017: From 2017, tariffs on imports like electronics rose (10% to 20%) under “Make in India,” reducing imports from China by 30% and promoting local production.
- Atmanirbhar Bharat (2020) raised duties to support self-reliance, making India a competitive hub in renewable energy. E.g. 15% duty on solar components.
Answer: (c) Economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Protectionism refers to economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations.
-
- Protectionist Policies Pre-1990s: India’s post-independence strategy used high tariffs (averaging 125% in the 1980s) to shield domestic industries and limit imports and foreign investment.
- 1991 Liberalization Shift: Facing a financial crisis, India cut tariffs from 125% to 35% by 2001, attracting FDI and boosting GDP growth to 7-8% annually in the early 2000s.
- Return to Protectionism Post-2017: From 2017, tariffs on imports like electronics rose (10% to 20%) under “Make in India,” reducing imports from China by 30% and promoting local production.
- Atmanirbhar Bharat (2020) raised duties to support self-reliance, making India a competitive hub in renewable energy. E.g. 15% duty on solar components.
Answer: (c) Economic policies restricting imports to protect domestic industries through tariffs, quotas, and regulations | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {IR – Middle East} Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) 2024 which replaced the Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA), is a treaty aimed at enhancing economic cooperation between India and which of the following countries?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) 2024 between India & UAE replaced the Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) to enhance economic cooperation between them.
- UAE constitutes 3% of India’s total FDI receipts and has invested $19 billion from 2000 to 2024.
-
- Strategic Partnership Declaration (2015): The Indian PM’s visit to the UAE established a strategic partnership that enhanced cooperation across various sectors.
- Cultural Engagement (2019): India participated as the Guest of Honour at the Abu Dhabi International Book Fair, showcasing the strong cultural ties between the two countries.
- COVID-19 Solidarity (2020-2021): The UAE supported India during the COVID-19 pandemic by providing essential medical supplies and vaccines, reinforcing bilateral solidarity.
- Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (2022): The signing of the CEPA aimed to significantly enhance bilateral trade and economic cooperation, focusing on various sectors.
-
- Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs): UAE’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) regulations and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) have hindered Indian exports, particularly in poultry, meat, and processed foods.
- China’s Economic Influence: China’s provision of low-interest loans in the UAE has crowded out Indian companies, challenging India’s economic interests in the region.
- Middle Eastern conflicts, like the Israel-Palestine, threaten India’s IMEC projects and strain relations with Iran and other Arab nations after the UAE’s normalisation with Israel through the Abraham Accords.
- Kafala System undermines the rights of Indian blue-collar workers in the UAE, granting employers undue control over their immigration and employment.
- UAE’s financial support to Pakistan, a country linked to sponsoring terrorism against India, raises significant national security concerns for India.
- India’s low ranking in contract enforcement may deter UAE investors, limiting FDI despite improved terms in the BIT.
-
- Strategic Dialogue Platforms: Initiate dialogues like the 2+2 format with the U.S. and Russia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in various sectors.
- Align with UAE’s Vision 2021: Utilize opportunities in renewable energy, startups, and fintech to deepen economic engagement while supporting the UAE’s diversification away from oil.
- Strengthen defence ties like COMCASA (Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement) between India and the U.S., enabling India’s military to access secure and encrypted communication.
Answer: (a) U.A.E | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) 2024 between India & UAE replaced the Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) to enhance economic cooperation between them.
- UAE constitutes 3% of India’s total FDI receipts and has invested $19 billion from 2000 to 2024.
-
- Strategic Partnership Declaration (2015): The Indian PM’s visit to the UAE established a strategic partnership that enhanced cooperation across various sectors.
- Cultural Engagement (2019): India participated as the Guest of Honour at the Abu Dhabi International Book Fair, showcasing the strong cultural ties between the two countries.
- COVID-19 Solidarity (2020-2021): The UAE supported India during the COVID-19 pandemic by providing essential medical supplies and vaccines, reinforcing bilateral solidarity.
- Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (2022): The signing of the CEPA aimed to significantly enhance bilateral trade and economic cooperation, focusing on various sectors.
-
- Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs): UAE’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) regulations and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) have hindered Indian exports, particularly in poultry, meat, and processed foods.
- China’s Economic Influence: China’s provision of low-interest loans in the UAE has crowded out Indian companies, challenging India’s economic interests in the region.
- Middle Eastern conflicts, like the Israel-Palestine, threaten India’s IMEC projects and strain relations with Iran and other Arab nations after the UAE’s normalisation with Israel through the Abraham Accords.
- Kafala System undermines the rights of Indian blue-collar workers in the UAE, granting employers undue control over their immigration and employment.
- UAE’s financial support to Pakistan, a country linked to sponsoring terrorism against India, raises significant national security concerns for India.
- India’s low ranking in contract enforcement may deter UAE investors, limiting FDI despite improved terms in the BIT.
-
- Strategic Dialogue Platforms: Initiate dialogues like the 2+2 format with the U.S. and Russia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in various sectors.
- Align with UAE’s Vision 2021: Utilize opportunities in renewable energy, startups, and fintech to deepen economic engagement while supporting the UAE’s diversification away from oil.
- Strengthen defence ties like COMCASA (Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement) between India and the U.S., enabling India’s military to access secure and encrypted communication.
Answer: (a) U.A.E | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) 2024 between India & UAE replaced the Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) to enhance economic cooperation between them.
- UAE constitutes 3% of India’s total FDI receipts and has invested $19 billion from 2000 to 2024.
-
- Strategic Partnership Declaration (2015): The Indian PM’s visit to the UAE established a strategic partnership that enhanced cooperation across various sectors.
- Cultural Engagement (2019): India participated as the Guest of Honour at the Abu Dhabi International Book Fair, showcasing the strong cultural ties between the two countries.
- COVID-19 Solidarity (2020-2021): The UAE supported India during the COVID-19 pandemic by providing essential medical supplies and vaccines, reinforcing bilateral solidarity.
- Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (2022): The signing of the CEPA aimed to significantly enhance bilateral trade and economic cooperation, focusing on various sectors.
-
- Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs): UAE’s Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) regulations and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) have hindered Indian exports, particularly in poultry, meat, and processed foods.
- China’s Economic Influence: China’s provision of low-interest loans in the UAE has crowded out Indian companies, challenging India’s economic interests in the region.
- Middle Eastern conflicts, like the Israel-Palestine, threaten India’s IMEC projects and strain relations with Iran and other Arab nations after the UAE’s normalisation with Israel through the Abraham Accords.
- Kafala System undermines the rights of Indian blue-collar workers in the UAE, granting employers undue control over their immigration and employment.
- UAE’s financial support to Pakistan, a country linked to sponsoring terrorism against India, raises significant national security concerns for India.
- India’s low ranking in contract enforcement may deter UAE investors, limiting FDI despite improved terms in the BIT.
-
- Strategic Dialogue Platforms: Initiate dialogues like the 2+2 format with the U.S. and Russia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in various sectors.
- Align with UAE’s Vision 2021: Utilize opportunities in renewable energy, startups, and fintech to deepen economic engagement while supporting the UAE’s diversification away from oil.
- Strengthen defence ties like COMCASA (Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement) between India and the U.S., enabling India’s military to access secure and encrypted communication.
Answer: (a) U.A.E | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – IC} Consider the following pairs:
Articles Provisions - Article 50
Establishment of the Parliament - Article 148
Comptroller and Auditor General of India - Article 12
Definiton of the term “State” - Article 79
Separation of the judiciary from executive How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Explanation
Articles Provisions - Article 50
Separation of the judiciary from executive - Article 148
Comptroller and Auditor General of India - Article 12
Definiton of the term “State” - Article 79
Establishment of the Parliament Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Articles Provisions - Article 50
Separation of the judiciary from executive - Article 148
Comptroller and Auditor General of India - Article 12
Definiton of the term “State” - Article 79
Establishment of the Parliament Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Articles Provisions - Article 50
Separation of the judiciary from executive - Article 148
Comptroller and Auditor General of India - Article 12
Definiton of the term “State” - Article 79
Establishment of the Parliament Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {IC – Judiciary} With reference to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements:
- The office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 and specifies a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- CJI is appointed by the President under Article 126 of the Constitution.
- Indian Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges.
- The office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Appointment: CJI is appointed by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.
- Whenever there is any doubt about the seniormost Judge’s fitness to hold the office of the CJI, consultation with other Judges, as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution, would be made for the appointment of the next CJI.
Statement 3 and 4 are correct
- Tenure: IC does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges. However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- Convention: The outgoing CJI traditionally recommends their successor strictly based on seniority—not age, but the duration of service in the Supreme Court.
- Government‘s Role: The Central government does not directly appoint the CJI. The Union Law Minister seeks the incumbent CJI’s recommendation and forwards it to the PM, who then advises the President.
-
Eligibility for CJI:
- Must be an Indian citizen.
- Must have at least five years of experience as an HC Judge or in succession across multiple HCs OR at least ten years of experience as an advocate in an HC or succession across multiple HCs Or must be a distinguished jurist, in the President’s opinion.
- Removal: The CJI can only be removed by an order from the President following an address by Parliament, supported by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting).
- Grounds for removal: Proven misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)).
- In 2019, the SC ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Appointment: CJI is appointed by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.
- Whenever there is any doubt about the seniormost Judge’s fitness to hold the office of the CJI, consultation with other Judges, as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution, would be made for the appointment of the next CJI.
Statement 3 and 4 are correct
- Tenure: IC does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges. However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- Convention: The outgoing CJI traditionally recommends their successor strictly based on seniority—not age, but the duration of service in the Supreme Court.
- Government‘s Role: The Central government does not directly appoint the CJI. The Union Law Minister seeks the incumbent CJI’s recommendation and forwards it to the PM, who then advises the President.
-
Eligibility for CJI:
- Must be an Indian citizen.
- Must have at least five years of experience as an HC Judge or in succession across multiple HCs OR at least ten years of experience as an advocate in an HC or succession across multiple HCs Or must be a distinguished jurist, in the President’s opinion.
- Removal: The CJI can only be removed by an order from the President following an address by Parliament, supported by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting).
- Grounds for removal: Proven misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)).
- In 2019, the SC ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Appointment: CJI is appointed by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.
- Whenever there is any doubt about the seniormost Judge’s fitness to hold the office of the CJI, consultation with other Judges, as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution, would be made for the appointment of the next CJI.
Statement 3 and 4 are correct
- Tenure: IC does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges. However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- Convention: The outgoing CJI traditionally recommends their successor strictly based on seniority—not age, but the duration of service in the Supreme Court.
- Government‘s Role: The Central government does not directly appoint the CJI. The Union Law Minister seeks the incumbent CJI’s recommendation and forwards it to the PM, who then advises the President.
-
Eligibility for CJI:
- Must be an Indian citizen.
- Must have at least five years of experience as an HC Judge or in succession across multiple HCs OR at least ten years of experience as an advocate in an HC or succession across multiple HCs Or must be a distinguished jurist, in the President’s opinion.
- Removal: The CJI can only be removed by an order from the President following an address by Parliament, supported by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting).
- Grounds for removal: Proven misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)).
- In 2019, the SC ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Agri – Livestock} With reference to the Livestock Census in India, consider the following statements:
- The first Livestock Census was conducted in 1919-20.
- It is conducted every ten years.
- It collects data separately for urban and rural areas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- The First Livestock Census was conducted in 1919-20.
- Data, under the report, is presented separately for urban and rural areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is conducted every five years.
- About livestock census:
- Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAHD) launched the 21st Livestock Census.
- The 20th Livestock Census was the first to use mobile technology.
- Agency: Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries, MoFAHD.
- Carries out a headcount of domesticated animals, poultry, and stray animals in the country.
- Takes into account information about the species, breed, age, sex, and ownership status of the animals.
- 21st Livestock Census will capture new data points like:
- Data on pastoral animals, the contribution of pastoralists to the livestock sector, their socio-economic status, and livestock holding.
- Proportion of households whose major income comes from the livestock sector.
- Data on the gender of stray cattle.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- The First Livestock Census was conducted in 1919-20.
- Data, under the report, is presented separately for urban and rural areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is conducted every five years.
- About livestock census:
- Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAHD) launched the 21st Livestock Census.
- The 20th Livestock Census was the first to use mobile technology.
- Agency: Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries, MoFAHD.
- Carries out a headcount of domesticated animals, poultry, and stray animals in the country.
- Takes into account information about the species, breed, age, sex, and ownership status of the animals.
- 21st Livestock Census will capture new data points like:
- Data on pastoral animals, the contribution of pastoralists to the livestock sector, their socio-economic status, and livestock holding.
- Proportion of households whose major income comes from the livestock sector.
- Data on the gender of stray cattle.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- The First Livestock Census was conducted in 1919-20.
- Data, under the report, is presented separately for urban and rural areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It is conducted every five years.
- About livestock census:
- Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAHD) launched the 21st Livestock Census.
- The 20th Livestock Census was the first to use mobile technology.
- Agency: Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries, MoFAHD.
- Carries out a headcount of domesticated animals, poultry, and stray animals in the country.
- Takes into account information about the species, breed, age, sex, and ownership status of the animals.
- 21st Livestock Census will capture new data points like:
- Data on pastoral animals, the contribution of pastoralists to the livestock sector, their socio-economic status, and livestock holding.
- Proportion of households whose major income comes from the livestock sector.
- Data on the gender of stray cattle.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {IS – Issues} Recently seen in news, which of the following correctly describes the term “Digital Arrest”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A ‘digital arrest’ involves cybercriminals using deception and fear to control a victim’s digital communication and movement to extract money or information.
- Fraudsters claim to be officers of an investigative government agency or law enforcement like CBI, Narcotics, TRAI, or customs officials and use deepfake videos, fake arrest warrants, etc, to impersonate officials of law enforcement agencies
- They approach the intended target using audio or video calls first to intimidate people and then extort money from them while confining them in one location under the false pretence of an ‘arrest’.
Answer: (c) A cybercrime where fraudsters
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A ‘digital arrest’ involves cybercriminals using deception and fear to control a victim’s digital communication and movement to extract money or information.
- Fraudsters claim to be officers of an investigative government agency or law enforcement like CBI, Narcotics, TRAI, or customs officials and use deepfake videos, fake arrest warrants, etc, to impersonate officials of law enforcement agencies
- They approach the intended target using audio or video calls first to intimidate people and then extort money from them while confining them in one location under the false pretence of an ‘arrest’.
Answer: (c) A cybercrime where fraudsters
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A ‘digital arrest’ involves cybercriminals using deception and fear to control a victim’s digital communication and movement to extract money or information.
- Fraudsters claim to be officers of an investigative government agency or law enforcement like CBI, Narcotics, TRAI, or customs officials and use deepfake videos, fake arrest warrants, etc, to impersonate officials of law enforcement agencies
- They approach the intended target using audio or video calls first to intimidate people and then extort money from them while confining them in one location under the false pretence of an ‘arrest’.
Answer: (c) A cybercrime where fraudsters
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Envi – Species} Consider the following statements regarding the Burmese pythons:
- It is the largest of the three subspecies of Indian pythons.
- It can grow up to 20 feet in length, with males generally being larger than females.
- It is classified as Endangered by the IUCN.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 and 3 are incorrect
- It is the largest of the three subspecies of Indian pythons and one of the largest snake species globally.
- It is an excellent swimmer and needs a permanent source of water. It can also stay in water for 30 minutes but mostly stays on land. These non-venomous snakes are also good climbers.
- Size: Can grow to 20 feet and weigh more than 250 pounds, with females being larger than males.
- Unique Jaw Structure: Unlike many other species, they have a lower jawbone that is not fused at the front, allowing for an impressive gape (jaw opening).
- Native Range: Northeastern India, southern China, Southeast Asia, and the Malay Peninsula, but it is absent from the Philippines.
- IUCN Status: Vulnerable.
Answer: (a) Only one | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 and 3 are incorrect
- It is the largest of the three subspecies of Indian pythons and one of the largest snake species globally.
- It is an excellent swimmer and needs a permanent source of water. It can also stay in water for 30 minutes but mostly stays on land. These non-venomous snakes are also good climbers.
- Size: Can grow to 20 feet and weigh more than 250 pounds, with females being larger than males.
- Unique Jaw Structure: Unlike many other species, they have a lower jawbone that is not fused at the front, allowing for an impressive gape (jaw opening).
- Native Range: Northeastern India, southern China, Southeast Asia, and the Malay Peninsula, but it is absent from the Philippines.
- IUCN Status: Vulnerable.
Answer: (a) Only one | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 and 3 are incorrect
- It is the largest of the three subspecies of Indian pythons and one of the largest snake species globally.
- It is an excellent swimmer and needs a permanent source of water. It can also stay in water for 30 minutes but mostly stays on land. These non-venomous snakes are also good climbers.
- Size: Can grow to 20 feet and weigh more than 250 pounds, with females being larger than males.
- Unique Jaw Structure: Unlike many other species, they have a lower jawbone that is not fused at the front, allowing for an impressive gape (jaw opening).
- Native Range: Northeastern India, southern China, Southeast Asia, and the Malay Peninsula, but it is absent from the Philippines.
- IUCN Status: Vulnerable.
Answer: (a) Only one | Difficulty Level: Medium
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