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October 23 2024 Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs)
Table of contents
- These Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs.
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
- Subscribers of the“Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – October 23 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – CC} Consider the following statements regarding the potential use of diamond dust to cool the Earth:
- Diamond dust in Earth’s upper atmosphere increases temperature of earth by trapping heat due to its reflective properties.
- Diamond dust could potentially cause acid rain when deployed in the Earth’s upper atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Spraying diamond dust in the Earth’s upper atmosphere could help cool down the Earth by a significant 1.6°C within 50 years.
- Diamond dust reflects light and heat.
- The dust could remain aloft for suitable lengths of time and is less likely to clump together to retain heat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It would not create acid rain because it is chemically inert.
- However, cost and logistical challenges limit its potential use.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Spraying diamond dust in the Earth’s upper atmosphere could help cool down the Earth by a significant 1.6°C within 50 years.
- Diamond dust reflects light and heat.
- The dust could remain aloft for suitable lengths of time and is less likely to clump together to retain heat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It would not create acid rain because it is chemically inert.
- However, cost and logistical challenges limit its potential use.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Spraying diamond dust in the Earth’s upper atmosphere could help cool down the Earth by a significant 1.6°C within 50 years.
- Diamond dust reflects light and heat.
- The dust could remain aloft for suitable lengths of time and is less likely to clump together to retain heat.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It would not create acid rain because it is chemically inert.
- However, cost and logistical challenges limit its potential use.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – Species} Caenorhabditis elegans, commonly known as “the worm,” is widely used to study brain and cell functions. It is a small, transparent nematode that thrives in temperate soil environments. In this context, consider the following statements:
- C. elegans has complex respiratory and circulatory systems, making it an ideal model for studying physiological processes.
- The transparency of C. elegans allows scientists to observe cell development under a microscope.
- It was the first animal to have its genome fully sequenced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Caenorhabditis elegans commonly known as “the worm,” is widely used to study brain and cell functions.
- It is a small, transparent nematode that thrives in temperate soil environments.
- Being hermaphrodites, they are capable of producing both eggs and sperm.
- The worms grow quickly, reaching adulthood in 3-5 days after hatching from eggs.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- C. elegans has a simpler anatomy and lacks both respiratory and circulatory systems, which is one reason why it is used in research for studying fundamental biological processes.
Statement 2 is correct
- C. elegans is transparent, allowing researchers to easily track cell development under a microscope.
Statement 3 is correct
- C. elegans was indeed the first animal to have a fully sequenced genome, which has made it a critical model in genetic research.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- Caenorhabditis elegans commonly known as “the worm,” is widely used to study brain and cell functions.
- It is a small, transparent nematode that thrives in temperate soil environments.
- Being hermaphrodites, they are capable of producing both eggs and sperm.
- The worms grow quickly, reaching adulthood in 3-5 days after hatching from eggs.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- C. elegans has a simpler anatomy and lacks both respiratory and circulatory systems, which is one reason why it is used in research for studying fundamental biological processes.
Statement 2 is correct
- C. elegans is transparent, allowing researchers to easily track cell development under a microscope.
Statement 3 is correct
- C. elegans was indeed the first animal to have a fully sequenced genome, which has made it a critical model in genetic research.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- Caenorhabditis elegans commonly known as “the worm,” is widely used to study brain and cell functions.
- It is a small, transparent nematode that thrives in temperate soil environments.
- Being hermaphrodites, they are capable of producing both eggs and sperm.
- The worms grow quickly, reaching adulthood in 3-5 days after hatching from eggs.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- C. elegans has a simpler anatomy and lacks both respiratory and circulatory systems, which is one reason why it is used in research for studying fundamental biological processes.
Statement 2 is correct
- C. elegans is transparent, allowing researchers to easily track cell development under a microscope.
Statement 3 is correct
- C. elegans was indeed the first animal to have a fully sequenced genome, which has made it a critical model in genetic research.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {PIN World – Africa} Consider the following statements regarding the Barberton Greenstone Belt (BGB):
- The Barberton Greenstone Belt is located in the Kapvaal craton of southeastern Africa and is known for its well-preserved volcanic and sedimentary rocks.
- The BGB is characterized by extensive transformation of its rocks due to subduction, resulting in a lack of diversity in rock types compared to other geological formations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Researchers have assessed the effects of an ancient meteorite impact in the Barberton Greenstone Belt, which acted as a giant fertilizer bomb for life on Earth.
- The meteorite delivered a substantial amount of phosphorus, a vital nutrient for microbes that is crucial for the molecules central to storing and conveying genetic information.
- Additionally, the impact mixed iron-rich deep waters into shallower waters, creating an environment that was ideal for microbial growth.
- Makhonjwa Mountains make up 40% of the Barberton belt. Komati River flows through the belt.
- BGB’s outcrops were added to UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites.
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
- It is located in the Kapvaal craton of southeastern Africa.
- It contains the best-preserved, oldest (the lowermost volcanic rocks are almost 3.5 billion years old), and most diverse sequence of volcanic and sedimentary rocks on Earth unaffected by subduction (and metamorphism) and erosion.
- The BGB is characterized by substantially untransformed Archaean rocks that have not undergone significant metamorphism due to subduction.
- This lack of transformation allows for a diverse sequence of rock types, making it an exceptional site for geological study.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- Researchers have assessed the effects of an ancient meteorite impact in the Barberton Greenstone Belt, which acted as a giant fertilizer bomb for life on Earth.
- The meteorite delivered a substantial amount of phosphorus, a vital nutrient for microbes that is crucial for the molecules central to storing and conveying genetic information.
- Additionally, the impact mixed iron-rich deep waters into shallower waters, creating an environment that was ideal for microbial growth.
- Makhonjwa Mountains make up 40% of the Barberton belt. Komati River flows through the belt.
- BGB’s outcrops were added to UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites.
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
- It is located in the Kapvaal craton of southeastern Africa.
- It contains the best-preserved, oldest (the lowermost volcanic rocks are almost 3.5 billion years old), and most diverse sequence of volcanic and sedimentary rocks on Earth unaffected by subduction (and metamorphism) and erosion.
- The BGB is characterized by substantially untransformed Archaean rocks that have not undergone significant metamorphism due to subduction.
- This lack of transformation allows for a diverse sequence of rock types, making it an exceptional site for geological study.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- Researchers have assessed the effects of an ancient meteorite impact in the Barberton Greenstone Belt, which acted as a giant fertilizer bomb for life on Earth.
- The meteorite delivered a substantial amount of phosphorus, a vital nutrient for microbes that is crucial for the molecules central to storing and conveying genetic information.
- Additionally, the impact mixed iron-rich deep waters into shallower waters, creating an environment that was ideal for microbial growth.
- Makhonjwa Mountains make up 40% of the Barberton belt. Komati River flows through the belt.
- BGB’s outcrops were added to UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites.
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
- It is located in the Kapvaal craton of southeastern Africa.
- It contains the best-preserved, oldest (the lowermost volcanic rocks are almost 3.5 billion years old), and most diverse sequence of volcanic and sedimentary rocks on Earth unaffected by subduction (and metamorphism) and erosion.
- The BGB is characterized by substantially untransformed Archaean rocks that have not undergone significant metamorphism due to subduction.
- This lack of transformation allows for a diverse sequence of rock types, making it an exceptional site for geological study.
Answer: (a) 1 only | Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Species} ‘Silesaurids’ an extinct group of species, whose fossils were recently recovered from Brazil, belongs to which of the following?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Fossil of a reptile called Gondwanax paraisensis was discovered in southern Brazil which belongs to a group of extinct reptiles, silesaurids, lived in southern Brazil during the Triassic period.
- Gondwanax means “lord of Gondwana,” referring to the southern part of the supercontinent Pangaea, paraisensis honors the town of Paraiso do Sul where the fossil was found.
- It is small, four-legged reptile, roughly the size of a small dog and is most commonly considered to be a clade of non-dinosaur dinosauriforms, and the sister group of dinosaurs.
Answer: (d) Dinosauriforms | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Fossil of a reptile called Gondwanax paraisensis was discovered in southern Brazil which belongs to a group of extinct reptiles, silesaurids, lived in southern Brazil during the Triassic period.
- Gondwanax means “lord of Gondwana,” referring to the southern part of the supercontinent Pangaea, paraisensis honors the town of Paraiso do Sul where the fossil was found.
- It is small, four-legged reptile, roughly the size of a small dog and is most commonly considered to be a clade of non-dinosaur dinosauriforms, and the sister group of dinosaurs.
Answer: (d) Dinosauriforms | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Fossil of a reptile called Gondwanax paraisensis was discovered in southern Brazil which belongs to a group of extinct reptiles, silesaurids, lived in southern Brazil during the Triassic period.
- Gondwanax means “lord of Gondwana,” referring to the southern part of the supercontinent Pangaea, paraisensis honors the town of Paraiso do Sul where the fossil was found.
- It is small, four-legged reptile, roughly the size of a small dog and is most commonly considered to be a clade of non-dinosaur dinosauriforms, and the sister group of dinosaurs.
Answer: (d) Dinosauriforms | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – In News} How many of the following can be considered as potential applications of Cloud Chamber?
- Simulation of cloud formation
- Facilitating studies on ice particle behavior
- Understanding monsoon cloud dynamics
- Strategic planning of weather modification through cloud seeding
Select the correct answers using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
All four given applications are correct
- Cloud Chamber is a closed cylindrical or tubular structure where water vapour, aerosols, and seed particles required for cloud formation are injected under controlled humidity and temperature conditions, which therefore, simulates the cloud formation.
- It is designed to study cloud droplet formation and the behaviour of ice particles and monsoon clouds.
- It will also allow detailed studies of cloud physics, including cloud behaviour under both normal and extreme weather conditions.
- These studies will contribute to the strategic planning of weather modification, including cloud seeding.
Answer: (d) All four | Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All four given applications are correct
- Cloud Chamber is a closed cylindrical or tubular structure where water vapour, aerosols, and seed particles required for cloud formation are injected under controlled humidity and temperature conditions, which therefore, simulates the cloud formation.
- It is designed to study cloud droplet formation and the behaviour of ice particles and monsoon clouds.
- It will also allow detailed studies of cloud physics, including cloud behaviour under both normal and extreme weather conditions.
- These studies will contribute to the strategic planning of weather modification, including cloud seeding.
Answer: (d) All four | Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All four given applications are correct
- Cloud Chamber is a closed cylindrical or tubular structure where water vapour, aerosols, and seed particles required for cloud formation are injected under controlled humidity and temperature conditions, which therefore, simulates the cloud formation.
- It is designed to study cloud droplet formation and the behaviour of ice particles and monsoon clouds.
- It will also allow detailed studies of cloud physics, including cloud behaviour under both normal and extreme weather conditions.
- These studies will contribute to the strategic planning of weather modification, including cloud seeding.
Answer: (d) All four | Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements regarding international efforts to mitigate space debris:
- Statement – I: Most space debris removal missions focus on Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
- Statement – II: The majority of space debris orbits within 2,000 km of Earth’s surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
- Most space debris removal missions focus on Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and LEO is a critical region for space debris mitigation due to:
- High object density and proximity: LEO contains a large number of satellites, rocket bodies, and fragments.
- Increased collision risk and impact: The high density of objects in LEO increases the likelihood of collisions, generating more debris.
- Orbital decay and accessibilty: Objects in LEO have a shorter orbital lifetime, making removal and disposal more feasible.
- The majority of space debris orbits within 2,000 km of Earth’s surface, primarily in LEO. This altitude range corresponds to:
- LEO (approximately 160-2,000 km): Where most satellites operate.
- High-density debris regions: Such as the “debris belts” around 800-1,000 km altitude.
- Debris Free Space Missions (DFSM) by ISRO, Clearspace-1 mission by European Space Agency (ESA), SSPICY funded by NASA etc. are examples of international efforts to clear space debris.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
- Most space debris removal missions focus on Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and LEO is a critical region for space debris mitigation due to:
- High object density and proximity: LEO contains a large number of satellites, rocket bodies, and fragments.
- Increased collision risk and impact: The high density of objects in LEO increases the likelihood of collisions, generating more debris.
- Orbital decay and accessibilty: Objects in LEO have a shorter orbital lifetime, making removal and disposal more feasible.
- The majority of space debris orbits within 2,000 km of Earth’s surface, primarily in LEO. This altitude range corresponds to:
- LEO (approximately 160-2,000 km): Where most satellites operate.
- High-density debris regions: Such as the “debris belts” around 800-1,000 km altitude.
- Debris Free Space Missions (DFSM) by ISRO, Clearspace-1 mission by European Space Agency (ESA), SSPICY funded by NASA etc. are examples of international efforts to clear space debris.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
- Most space debris removal missions focus on Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and LEO is a critical region for space debris mitigation due to:
- High object density and proximity: LEO contains a large number of satellites, rocket bodies, and fragments.
- Increased collision risk and impact: The high density of objects in LEO increases the likelihood of collisions, generating more debris.
- Orbital decay and accessibilty: Objects in LEO have a shorter orbital lifetime, making removal and disposal more feasible.
- The majority of space debris orbits within 2,000 km of Earth’s surface, primarily in LEO. This altitude range corresponds to:
- LEO (approximately 160-2,000 km): Where most satellites operate.
- High-density debris regions: Such as the “debris belts” around 800-1,000 km altitude.
- Debris Free Space Missions (DFSM) by ISRO, Clearspace-1 mission by European Space Agency (ESA), SSPICY funded by NASA etc. are examples of international efforts to clear space debris.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I | Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {IS – Laws} Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA):
- Declaration of Disturbed Areas under Section 3 of AFSPA can be made by the Governor, UT Administrator, or the Central Government through a notification in the Official Gazette.
- Section 4 of AFSPA grants armed forces personnel the power to arrest individuals only with a warrant if there is suspicion of unlawful activities.
- Armed forces are allowed to enter and search premises without a warrant under AFSPA, facilitating swift action against insurgents or lawbreakers.
- Section 6 Provides legal protection to armed forces personnel from prosecution for actions taken under AFSPA unless the Governor allows it.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Under Section 3 of AFSPA, the Governor, the UT Administrator, or the Central Government can declare an area as ‘disturbed’ through a notification in the Official Gazette.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Section 4 of AFSPA grants armed forces special powers to arrest individuals without a warrant, provided there is reasonable suspicion of involvement in unlawful activities.
Statement 3 is correct
- The armed forces can search premises without a warrant under AFSPA, enabling them to act swiftly against insurgents and lawbreakers.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Section 6 Provides legal protection to armed forces personnel from prosecution for actions taken under AFSPA unless the Central Government allows it.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Under Section 3 of AFSPA, the Governor, the UT Administrator, or the Central Government can declare an area as ‘disturbed’ through a notification in the Official Gazette.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Section 4 of AFSPA grants armed forces special powers to arrest individuals without a warrant, provided there is reasonable suspicion of involvement in unlawful activities.
Statement 3 is correct
- The armed forces can search premises without a warrant under AFSPA, enabling them to act swiftly against insurgents and lawbreakers.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Section 6 Provides legal protection to armed forces personnel from prosecution for actions taken under AFSPA unless the Central Government allows it.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Under Section 3 of AFSPA, the Governor, the UT Administrator, or the Central Government can declare an area as ‘disturbed’ through a notification in the Official Gazette.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Section 4 of AFSPA grants armed forces special powers to arrest individuals without a warrant, provided there is reasonable suspicion of involvement in unlawful activities.
Statement 3 is correct
- The armed forces can search premises without a warrant under AFSPA, enabling them to act swiftly against insurgents and lawbreakers.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Section 6 Provides legal protection to armed forces personnel from prosecution for actions taken under AFSPA unless the Central Government allows it.
Answer: (b) Only two | Difficulty Level: Medium
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