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Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – October 17 2024 "
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {Social Sector – Poverty} The Poverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024, which provides a detailed post-pandemic evaluation of global efforts to eradicate poverty, enhance shared prosperity, and secure a sustainable environment, is released by which of the following organizations?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
The World Bank Group’sPoverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 provides a comprehensive post-pandemic assessment of global efforts to eradicate poverty, enhance shared prosperity, and ensure environmental sustainability.
Key findings reveal that global poverty reduction has nearly stalled over the past five years, primarily due to a ‘polycrisis’ involving slow economic growth, increased fragility, climate risks, and uncertainty.
Sub-Saharan Africa remains the most affected region, housing 67% of the world’s extreme poor.
The global population in extreme poverty is projected to be 8.5% in 2024 and 7.3% by 2030, far exceeding the World Bank’s target of 3% and the UN’s goal of eliminating extreme poverty.
Furthermore, global prosperity has seen little progress since the pandemic, with a slowdown in inclusive income growth.
However, India has made significant strides, reducing the number of people in extreme poverty from 431 million in 1990 to 129 million in 2024.
Answer: (d) World Bank Group; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
The World Bank Group’sPoverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 provides a comprehensive post-pandemic assessment of global efforts to eradicate poverty, enhance shared prosperity, and ensure environmental sustainability.
Key findings reveal that global poverty reduction has nearly stalled over the past five years, primarily due to a ‘polycrisis’ involving slow economic growth, increased fragility, climate risks, and uncertainty.
Sub-Saharan Africa remains the most affected region, housing 67% of the world’s extreme poor.
The global population in extreme poverty is projected to be 8.5% in 2024 and 7.3% by 2030, far exceeding the World Bank’s target of 3% and the UN’s goal of eliminating extreme poverty.
Furthermore, global prosperity has seen little progress since the pandemic, with a slowdown in inclusive income growth.
However, India has made significant strides, reducing the number of people in extreme poverty from 431 million in 1990 to 129 million in 2024.
Answer: (d) World Bank Group; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
The World Bank Group’sPoverty, Prosperity, and Planet Report 2024 provides a comprehensive post-pandemic assessment of global efforts to eradicate poverty, enhance shared prosperity, and ensure environmental sustainability.
Key findings reveal that global poverty reduction has nearly stalled over the past five years, primarily due to a ‘polycrisis’ involving slow economic growth, increased fragility, climate risks, and uncertainty.
Sub-Saharan Africa remains the most affected region, housing 67% of the world’s extreme poor.
The global population in extreme poverty is projected to be 8.5% in 2024 and 7.3% by 2030, far exceeding the World Bank’s target of 3% and the UN’s goal of eliminating extreme poverty.
Furthermore, global prosperity has seen little progress since the pandemic, with a slowdown in inclusive income growth.
However, India has made significant strides, reducing the number of people in extreme poverty from 431 million in 1990 to 129 million in 2024.
Answer: (d) World Bank Group; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Tech} Consider the following statements regarding the spectrum allocations:
International Telecommunication Union (ITU), allocates parts of the electromagnetic spectrum to different services and updates the Radio Regulations every 3-4 years through the World Radiocommunication Conference.
The Radio Regulations set international standards and frequencies for communications services, ensuring equitable access to the spectrum while preventing interference.
Satellite internet operates in frequency bands exclusively dedicated to satellite services and does not share these bands with terrestrial services.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), a specialized agency of the United Nations, plays a crucial role in managing the electromagnetic spectrum by allocating specific portions for various services.
It upholds the Radio Regulations (RR), established during the World Radiocommunication Conference held every three to four years, which set international standards and frequencies for satellite and other communication services.
These regulations aim to prevent interference and ensure equitable access to the spectrum for all countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Satellite internet operates within internationally harmonized frequency bands, allowing for shared use of these bands between satellite operators and terrestrial services globally, in accordance with ITU regulations.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), a specialized agency of the United Nations, plays a crucial role in managing the electromagnetic spectrum by allocating specific portions for various services.
It upholds the Radio Regulations (RR), established during the World Radiocommunication Conference held every three to four years, which set international standards and frequencies for satellite and other communication services.
These regulations aim to prevent interference and ensure equitable access to the spectrum for all countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Satellite internet operates within internationally harmonized frequency bands, allowing for shared use of these bands between satellite operators and terrestrial services globally, in accordance with ITU regulations.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), a specialized agency of the United Nations, plays a crucial role in managing the electromagnetic spectrum by allocating specific portions for various services.
It upholds the Radio Regulations (RR), established during the World Radiocommunication Conference held every three to four years, which set international standards and frequencies for satellite and other communication services.
These regulations aim to prevent interference and ensure equitable access to the spectrum for all countries.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Satellite internet operates within internationally harmonized frequency bands, allowing for shared use of these bands between satellite operators and terrestrial services globally, in accordance with ITU regulations.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – Sci – Bio} Consider the following statements regarding microRNAs (miRNAs):
It binds to messenger RNA (mRNA) to promote translation, increasing gene expression.
They are primarily involved in protein synthesis and do not play a role in gene regulation.
Due to their stable presence in body fluids, they can act as biomarkers for various diseases, including cancer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules, typically around 22 nucleotides in length, that control gene expression at the post-transcriptional stage.
Statement 1 is incorrect
It does not promote gene expression; they silence it by binding to mRNA and causing its degradation or inhibiting translation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
They are not involved in protein synthesis but are crucial regulators of gene expression at the post-transcriptional level.
Statement 3 is correct
They are used as biomarkers for diseases, including cancer, due to their stable presence in body fluids, which allows for non-invasive diagnostics.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules, typically around 22 nucleotides in length, that control gene expression at the post-transcriptional stage.
Statement 1 is incorrect
It does not promote gene expression; they silence it by binding to mRNA and causing its degradation or inhibiting translation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
They are not involved in protein synthesis but are crucial regulators of gene expression at the post-transcriptional level.
Statement 3 is correct
They are used as biomarkers for diseases, including cancer, due to their stable presence in body fluids, which allows for non-invasive diagnostics.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNA molecules, typically around 22 nucleotides in length, that control gene expression at the post-transcriptional stage.
Statement 1 is incorrect
It does not promote gene expression; they silence it by binding to mRNA and causing its degradation or inhibiting translation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
They are not involved in protein synthesis but are crucial regulators of gene expression at the post-transcriptional level.
Statement 3 is correct
They are used as biomarkers for diseases, including cancer, due to their stable presence in body fluids, which allows for non-invasive diagnostics.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {Policy – IC – Judiciary} Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF) best reflects which of the following concepts?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
Rising litigation costs and significant case backlogs in India highlight the potential of Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF) as a means to improve access to justice, alongside the urgent need for a national regulatory framework.
TPLF involves an external party financing a litigant’s legal expenses in exchange for a share of any settlement or award, thereby assuming the financial risk and enabling individuals with limited resources to pursue high-cost litigation.
The current justice system faces numerous challenges, including over 40 million pending cases, rising legal fees that make justice unaffordable for many, and a shortage of judges—with over 400 vacancies in the higher judiciary and 5,000 in subordinate courts.
Additionally, India’s low judge-to-population ratio, at only 20 judges per million, is far below the Law Commission’s recommended 50.
Furthermore, studies reveal that 70% of the prison population is under trial due to the inability to afford bail or legal representation.
TPLF serves as an equalizer in the courtroom, empowering marginalized communities to challenge powerful corporations and supporting public interest litigation (PIL) by underprivileged groups and NGOs.
It also provides funding for costly cases in areas like medical malpractice and intellectual property, supports social impact litigation concerning environmental protection and labor rights, and enhances consumer protection litigation, as evidenced by a 92% success rate in class-action lawsuits in Australia.
Answer: (b) A financial arrangement where an external party covers a litigant’s legal costs in exchange for a por-tion of the settlement or award; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
Rising litigation costs and significant case backlogs in India highlight the potential of Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF) as a means to improve access to justice, alongside the urgent need for a national regulatory framework.
TPLF involves an external party financing a litigant’s legal expenses in exchange for a share of any settlement or award, thereby assuming the financial risk and enabling individuals with limited resources to pursue high-cost litigation.
The current justice system faces numerous challenges, including over 40 million pending cases, rising legal fees that make justice unaffordable for many, and a shortage of judges—with over 400 vacancies in the higher judiciary and 5,000 in subordinate courts.
Additionally, India’s low judge-to-population ratio, at only 20 judges per million, is far below the Law Commission’s recommended 50.
Furthermore, studies reveal that 70% of the prison population is under trial due to the inability to afford bail or legal representation.
TPLF serves as an equalizer in the courtroom, empowering marginalized communities to challenge powerful corporations and supporting public interest litigation (PIL) by underprivileged groups and NGOs.
It also provides funding for costly cases in areas like medical malpractice and intellectual property, supports social impact litigation concerning environmental protection and labor rights, and enhances consumer protection litigation, as evidenced by a 92% success rate in class-action lawsuits in Australia.
Answer: (b) A financial arrangement where an external party covers a litigant’s legal costs in exchange for a por-tion of the settlement or award; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
Rising litigation costs and significant case backlogs in India highlight the potential of Third-Party Litigation Funding (TPLF) as a means to improve access to justice, alongside the urgent need for a national regulatory framework.
TPLF involves an external party financing a litigant’s legal expenses in exchange for a share of any settlement or award, thereby assuming the financial risk and enabling individuals with limited resources to pursue high-cost litigation.
The current justice system faces numerous challenges, including over 40 million pending cases, rising legal fees that make justice unaffordable for many, and a shortage of judges—with over 400 vacancies in the higher judiciary and 5,000 in subordinate courts.
Additionally, India’s low judge-to-population ratio, at only 20 judges per million, is far below the Law Commission’s recommended 50.
Furthermore, studies reveal that 70% of the prison population is under trial due to the inability to afford bail or legal representation.
TPLF serves as an equalizer in the courtroom, empowering marginalized communities to challenge powerful corporations and supporting public interest litigation (PIL) by underprivileged groups and NGOs.
It also provides funding for costly cases in areas like medical malpractice and intellectual property, supports social impact litigation concerning environmental protection and labor rights, and enhances consumer protection litigation, as evidenced by a 92% success rate in class-action lawsuits in Australia.
Answer: (b) A financial arrangement where an external party covers a litigant’s legal costs in exchange for a por-tion of the settlement or award; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {Sci – Bio} ‘Ossification’ recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
Ossification refers to the process of bone formation and development.
In the context of forensic anthropology and medicolegal investigations, ossification is used to assess skeletal maturity, which helps estimate an individual’s age.
The bone ossification test involves taking X-rays of specific bones, such as the clavicle, sternum, pelvis, and wrist. These bones are chosen because they undergo significant changes as a person ages.
The test provides an estimated age range rather than an exact age. Individual variations in bone maturation can affect the results.
Ossification refers to the process of bone formation and development.
In the context of forensic anthropology and medicolegal investigations, ossification is used to assess skeletal maturity, which helps estimate an individual’s age.
The bone ossification test involves taking X-rays of specific bones, such as the clavicle, sternum, pelvis, and wrist. These bones are chosen because they undergo significant changes as a person ages.
The test provides an estimated age range rather than an exact age. Individual variations in bone maturation can affect the results.
Ossification refers to the process of bone formation and development.
In the context of forensic anthropology and medicolegal investigations, ossification is used to assess skeletal maturity, which helps estimate an individual’s age.
The bone ossification test involves taking X-rays of specific bones, such as the clavicle, sternum, pelvis, and wrist. These bones are chosen because they undergo significant changes as a person ages.
The test provides an estimated age range rather than an exact age. Individual variations in bone maturation can affect the results.
Q6. {A&C – Buddhism} Consider the following statements regardingBuddhist canons:
The earliest canons are written in Sanskrit language only.
Vinaya Pitaka is the second part of the Pali Canon and contains the moral philosophy of Buddha’s teaching.
Abhidhamma Pitaka, comprising seven books, provides a detailed framework for understanding the nature of existence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The earliest Buddhist canons are written mainly in Pali language, not Sanskrit.
It was also written in Sanskrit (e.g., Mahayana sutras) and other regional languages (e.g., Gandhari, Khotanese).
Statement 2 is incorrect
Tipiṭakas are the Three Baskets or groups of texts that ideally constitute a canon, which are the Vinaya, Sutta, and Abhidhamma pitakas.
Vinaya Pitaka is the first part of the Pali Canon (not second).
It contains rules and regulations for Buddhist monks and nuns (bhikkhus and bhikkhunis).
Moral philosophy is primarily found in the Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
Statement 3 is correct
Abhidhamma Pitaka comprises seven books and it focus on analysing Buddhist teachings, providing a systematic understanding of Buddhist philosophy, explaining the nature of reality, consciousness, and mental phenomena etc.
The Abhidhamma teachings offer a detailed framework for understanding the nature of existence and its scope lies broader than that.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The earliest Buddhist canons are written mainly in Pali language, not Sanskrit.
It was also written in Sanskrit (e.g., Mahayana sutras) and other regional languages (e.g., Gandhari, Khotanese).
Statement 2 is incorrect
Tipiṭakas are the Three Baskets or groups of texts that ideally constitute a canon, which are the Vinaya, Sutta, and Abhidhamma pitakas.
Vinaya Pitaka is the first part of the Pali Canon (not second).
It contains rules and regulations for Buddhist monks and nuns (bhikkhus and bhikkhunis).
Moral philosophy is primarily found in the Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
Statement 3 is correct
Abhidhamma Pitaka comprises seven books and it focus on analysing Buddhist teachings, providing a systematic understanding of Buddhist philosophy, explaining the nature of reality, consciousness, and mental phenomena etc.
The Abhidhamma teachings offer a detailed framework for understanding the nature of existence and its scope lies broader than that.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The earliest Buddhist canons are written mainly in Pali language, not Sanskrit.
It was also written in Sanskrit (e.g., Mahayana sutras) and other regional languages (e.g., Gandhari, Khotanese).
Statement 2 is incorrect
Tipiṭakas are the Three Baskets or groups of texts that ideally constitute a canon, which are the Vinaya, Sutta, and Abhidhamma pitakas.
Vinaya Pitaka is the first part of the Pali Canon (not second).
It contains rules and regulations for Buddhist monks and nuns (bhikkhus and bhikkhunis).
Moral philosophy is primarily found in the Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
Statement 3 is correct
Abhidhamma Pitaka comprises seven books and it focus on analysing Buddhist teachings, providing a systematic understanding of Buddhist philosophy, explaining the nature of reality, consciousness, and mental phenomena etc.
The Abhidhamma teachings offer a detailed framework for understanding the nature of existence and its scope lies broader than that.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Defence} Which of the following terms given below explains ‘Sky guardian and Sea Guardian’ recently seen in news?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
Sky Guardian” and “Sea Guardian” refer to the MQ-9B Guardian, a High-Altitude Long Endurance (HALE) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI).
It can fly for 35-40 hours at altitudes over 40,000 feet. It can carry four Hellfire missiles and around 450 kgs of bombs.
With a range of about 1,800 km, it is capable of automatic take-offs and landings.
These UAVs are designed for:
Maritime surveillance
Border surveillance
Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
Anti-piracy operations
Recently, The Cabinet Committee on Security approved acquiring 31 Predator drones MQ-9B.
Answer: (d) High Altitude Long Endurance UAV; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
Sky Guardian” and “Sea Guardian” refer to the MQ-9B Guardian, a High-Altitude Long Endurance (HALE) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI).
It can fly for 35-40 hours at altitudes over 40,000 feet. It can carry four Hellfire missiles and around 450 kgs of bombs.
With a range of about 1,800 km, it is capable of automatic take-offs and landings.
These UAVs are designed for:
Maritime surveillance
Border surveillance
Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
Anti-piracy operations
Recently, The Cabinet Committee on Security approved acquiring 31 Predator drones MQ-9B.
Answer: (d) High Altitude Long Endurance UAV; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
Sky Guardian” and “Sea Guardian” refer to the MQ-9B Guardian, a High-Altitude Long Endurance (HALE) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI).
It can fly for 35-40 hours at altitudes over 40,000 feet. It can carry four Hellfire missiles and around 450 kgs of bombs.
With a range of about 1,800 km, it is capable of automatic take-offs and landings.
These UAVs are designed for:
Maritime surveillance
Border surveillance
Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
Anti-piracy operations
Recently, The Cabinet Committee on Security approved acquiring 31 Predator drones MQ-9B.
Answer: (d) High Altitude Long Endurance UAV; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {Social Sector – Health – Issues}Consider the following statements regarding India’s regulatory framework for antibiotics:
The Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 classifies antibiotics as new drugs requiring central government approval.
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recommended including all antibiotics in the definition of new drugs under the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 governs the regulation of drugs in India.
Currently, Antibiotics are not classified as “new drugs” under this Act.
New drugs are defined under Drug and Cosmetic Rules 1945 as a drug not been used in the country or recognised as effective and safe by the licensing authority.
Statement 2 is correct
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recommended including all antibiotics in the definition of new drugs under the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019.
Then, antibiotics would require central govt approval for manufacturing and marketing and could only be sold with a prescription.
Drugs Technical Advisory Board, part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is India’s highest statutory decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs.
It advises the Central and State Governments on technical matters arising from administrating the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
Answer: (a) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 governs the regulation of drugs in India.
Currently, Antibiotics are not classified as “new drugs” under this Act.
New drugs are defined under Drug and Cosmetic Rules 1945 as a drug not been used in the country or recognised as effective and safe by the licensing authority.
Statement 2 is correct
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recommended including all antibiotics in the definition of new drugs under the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019.
Then, antibiotics would require central govt approval for manufacturing and marketing and could only be sold with a prescription.
Drugs Technical Advisory Board, part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is India’s highest statutory decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs.
It advises the Central and State Governments on technical matters arising from administrating the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
Answer: (a) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 governs the regulation of drugs in India.
Currently, Antibiotics are not classified as “new drugs” under this Act.
New drugs are defined under Drug and Cosmetic Rules 1945 as a drug not been used in the country or recognised as effective and safe by the licensing authority.
Statement 2 is correct
The Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) has recommended including all antibiotics in the definition of new drugs under the New Drugs and Clinical Trial (NDCT) Rules, 2019.
Then, antibiotics would require central govt approval for manufacturing and marketing and could only be sold with a prescription.
Drugs Technical Advisory Board, part of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is India’s highest statutory decision-making body on technical matters related to drugs.
It advises the Central and State Governments on technical matters arising from administrating the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
Answer: (a) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {Prelims – Bio – Diseases} With reference to Diphtheria, consider the following statements:
Diphtheria is caused by a virus that primarily affects children between the ages of newborn to 16 years.
The DPT vaccine, which is part of the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), can prevent diphtheria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Diphtheria is not caused by a virus; it is a bacterial disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae.
It affects children, primarily from newborns up to 16 years of age. Children in this age range are more vulnerable due to their developing immune systems and lower rates of natural immunity.
The disease primarily affects the respiratory system and can lead to serious complications if not treated promptly, including heart, nerve, and kidney damage.
Statement 2 is correct
The DPT vaccine (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus), which is part of India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), is a widely used preventive measure against diphtheria.
The vaccine works by helping the immune system recognize and fight the bacteria that cause diphtheria, significantly reducing the risk of infection.The widespread use of this vaccine has been highly effective in controlling the spread of diphtheria.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Diphtheria is not caused by a virus; it is a bacterial disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae.
It affects children, primarily from newborns up to 16 years of age. Children in this age range are more vulnerable due to their developing immune systems and lower rates of natural immunity.
The disease primarily affects the respiratory system and can lead to serious complications if not treated promptly, including heart, nerve, and kidney damage.
Statement 2 is correct
The DPT vaccine (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus), which is part of India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), is a widely used preventive measure against diphtheria.
The vaccine works by helping the immune system recognize and fight the bacteria that cause diphtheria, significantly reducing the risk of infection.The widespread use of this vaccine has been highly effective in controlling the spread of diphtheria.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Diphtheria is not caused by a virus; it is a bacterial disease caused by the bacterium Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae.
It affects children, primarily from newborns up to 16 years of age. Children in this age range are more vulnerable due to their developing immune systems and lower rates of natural immunity.
The disease primarily affects the respiratory system and can lead to serious complications if not treated promptly, including heart, nerve, and kidney damage.
Statement 2 is correct
The DPT vaccine (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus), which is part of India’s Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP), is a widely used preventive measure against diphtheria.
The vaccine works by helping the immune system recognize and fight the bacteria that cause diphtheria, significantly reducing the risk of infection.The widespread use of this vaccine has been highly effective in controlling the spread of diphtheria.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
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