November 23 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – November 23 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {S&T – AI} Which of the following best describes the “Lock-In Effect” associated with Big Tech dominance in AI?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Big Tech’s AI dominance has led countries like India to invest in alternatives, but a radical approach is needed to truly challenge their monopoly.
- Challenges Posed by Big Tech Dominance:
- Computational Costs: Building deep learning models is costly, making it difficult for smaller players to compete with Big Tech. For instance, Gemini Ultra cost around $200 million to train in 2023.
- Monopoly Over Data: Big Tech companies have continuous access to vast streams of data, giving them a competitive edge that smaller players cannot match.
- Lock-In Effect: Big Tech provides end-to-end services, from cloud infrastructure to developer tools, making it expensive and inefficient for companies to switch providers.
Answer: (b) Dependence on Big Tech for end-to-end services, making it inefficient to switch providers; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Big Tech’s AI dominance has led countries like India to invest in alternatives, but a radical approach is needed to truly challenge their monopoly.
- Challenges Posed by Big Tech Dominance:
- Computational Costs: Building deep learning models is costly, making it difficult for smaller players to compete with Big Tech. For instance, Gemini Ultra cost around $200 million to train in 2023.
- Monopoly Over Data: Big Tech companies have continuous access to vast streams of data, giving them a competitive edge that smaller players cannot match.
- Lock-In Effect: Big Tech provides end-to-end services, from cloud infrastructure to developer tools, making it expensive and inefficient for companies to switch providers.
Answer: (b) Dependence on Big Tech for end-to-end services, making it inefficient to switch providers; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Big Tech’s AI dominance has led countries like India to invest in alternatives, but a radical approach is needed to truly challenge their monopoly.
- Challenges Posed by Big Tech Dominance:
- Computational Costs: Building deep learning models is costly, making it difficult for smaller players to compete with Big Tech. For instance, Gemini Ultra cost around $200 million to train in 2023.
- Monopoly Over Data: Big Tech companies have continuous access to vast streams of data, giving them a competitive edge that smaller players cannot match.
- Lock-In Effect: Big Tech provides end-to-end services, from cloud infrastructure to developer tools, making it expensive and inefficient for companies to switch providers.
Answer: (b) Dependence on Big Tech for end-to-end services, making it inefficient to switch providers; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – CC} Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025:
- It is released by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute & Climate Action Network.
- It assesses each country’s performance in three categories: GHG emissions, renewable energy, and energy use.
- The first three places in the CCPI are occupied by Denmark, Netherlands, and the United Kingdom.
- India ranks 7th in this year’s CCPI.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Annual CCPI report for 2025 was released at COP29 in Baku.
- It is released by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute & Climate Action Network.
All other statements are incorrect
- It compares the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global GHG emissions.
- It assesses each country’s performance in four categories: GHG Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%) and Climate Policy (20%).
- A country is rated in a category that includes Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low & Not Included.
- Key Findings:
- The 1st three places remain empty followed by Denmark (4th), Netherlands (5th) and UK (6th).
- 63 countries, along with the European Union, assessed are responsible for 90% of global emissions.
- India ranks 10th in this year’s CCPI, dropping two spots compared to last ago.
- India and the U.K. are the only two G20 countries among the high performers in the CCPI. India’s per capita emissions stand at 2.9 tons of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e), far below the global average of 6.6 tCO2e.
- The four lowest-ranked countries in the CCPI are Iran (67th), Saudi Arabia (66th), the United Arab Emirates (65th), and Russia (64th), all four among the world’s largest oil and gas producers.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Annual CCPI report for 2025 was released at COP29 in Baku.
- It is released by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute & Climate Action Network.
All other statements are incorrect
- It compares the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global GHG emissions.
- It assesses each country’s performance in four categories: GHG Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%) and Climate Policy (20%).
- A country is rated in a category that includes Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low & Not Included.
- Key Findings:
- The 1st three places remain empty followed by Denmark (4th), Netherlands (5th) and UK (6th).
- 63 countries, along with the European Union, assessed are responsible for 90% of global emissions.
- India ranks 10th in this year’s CCPI, dropping two spots compared to last ago.
- India and the U.K. are the only two G20 countries among the high performers in the CCPI. India’s per capita emissions stand at 2.9 tons of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e), far below the global average of 6.6 tCO2e.
- The four lowest-ranked countries in the CCPI are Iran (67th), Saudi Arabia (66th), the United Arab Emirates (65th), and Russia (64th), all four among the world’s largest oil and gas producers.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Annual CCPI report for 2025 was released at COP29 in Baku.
- It is released by Germanwatch, New Climate Institute & Climate Action Network.
All other statements are incorrect
- It compares the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global GHG emissions.
- It assesses each country’s performance in four categories: GHG Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%) and Climate Policy (20%).
- A country is rated in a category that includes Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low & Not Included.
- Key Findings:
- The 1st three places remain empty followed by Denmark (4th), Netherlands (5th) and UK (6th).
- 63 countries, along with the European Union, assessed are responsible for 90% of global emissions.
- India ranks 10th in this year’s CCPI, dropping two spots compared to last ago.
- India and the U.K. are the only two G20 countries among the high performers in the CCPI. India’s per capita emissions stand at 2.9 tons of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e), far below the global average of 6.6 tCO2e.
- The four lowest-ranked countries in the CCPI are Iran (67th), Saudi Arabia (66th), the United Arab Emirates (65th), and Russia (64th), all four among the world’s largest oil and gas producers.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – In News} The term “Peak Oil,” often mentioned in news, refers to:
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Peak oil refers to the point in time when global crude oil production reaches its maximum point and subsequently begins an irreversible decline. This occurs when readily accessible oil reserves are depleted, forcing us to rely on more challenging and expensive extraction methods.
- The concept is derived from geophysicist Marion King Hubbert’s “peak theory,” which states that oil production follows a bell-shaped curve.
Credits: Wikipedia
Answer: (c) The point at which global crude oil production reaches its maximum and begins to decline irreversibly; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Peak oil refers to the point in time when global crude oil production reaches its maximum point and subsequently begins an irreversible decline. This occurs when readily accessible oil reserves are depleted, forcing us to rely on more challenging and expensive extraction methods.
- The concept is derived from geophysicist Marion King Hubbert’s “peak theory,” which states that oil production follows a bell-shaped curve.
Credits: Wikipedia
Answer: (c) The point at which global crude oil production reaches its maximum and begins to decline irreversibly; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Peak oil refers to the point in time when global crude oil production reaches its maximum point and subsequently begins an irreversible decline. This occurs when readily accessible oil reserves are depleted, forcing us to rely on more challenging and expensive extraction methods.
- The concept is derived from geophysicist Marion King Hubbert’s “peak theory,” which states that oil production follows a bell-shaped curve.
Credits: Wikipedia
Answer: (c) The point at which global crude oil production reaches its maximum and begins to decline irreversibly; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {A&C – Personalities} Which of the following statements regarding Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s teachings are correct?
- He encouraged idol worship and pilgrimages as part of spiritual practice.
- He emphasized social equality through concepts like Sangat and Pangat.
- He taught that women are equally valued and share God’s grace.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Explanation
- Guru Nanak Dev Ji (c. 1469–1539 CE):
- Birth: Born in 1469 in Talwandi (now Nankana Sahib, Pakistan).
- Founder of Sikhism: Established the Sikh faith, rejecting caste discrimination and advocating for devotion to one formless, all-powerful, and truthful God.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- He denounced idol worship, pilgrimages, and caste distinctions, promoting a practical, ethical, and truthful way of life.
- Core Teachings: God conceptualised as Nirguna (attribute less) and Nirankar (formless).
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Aspects of Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s Life and Teachings:
- Egalitarian Society: Promoted equality through Langar (shared community meal), Pangat (eating together without discrimination), and Sangat (collective decision-making).
- Oneness of God: Emphasized the message of “Ek Onkar Satnam,” advocating that all are equal.
- Core Values: His teachings centered on forgiveness, patience, kindness, and compassion, essential for fostering societal harmony.
- Just Society: He advocated “kirat karo” (honest work), “naam japo” (devotion), and “vand chhako” (sharing with others) to create a balanced and responsible community.
- Charity and Service: Promoted the concept of “dasvandh”, encouraging individuals to donate a tenth of their earnings to help the needy.
- Gender Equality: Taught that both men and women are equally valued and share God’s grace, advocating for gender justice.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Guru Nanak Dev Ji (c. 1469–1539 CE):
- Birth: Born in 1469 in Talwandi (now Nankana Sahib, Pakistan).
- Founder of Sikhism: Established the Sikh faith, rejecting caste discrimination and advocating for devotion to one formless, all-powerful, and truthful God.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- He denounced idol worship, pilgrimages, and caste distinctions, promoting a practical, ethical, and truthful way of life.
- Core Teachings: God conceptualised as Nirguna (attribute less) and Nirankar (formless).
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Aspects of Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s Life and Teachings:
- Egalitarian Society: Promoted equality through Langar (shared community meal), Pangat (eating together without discrimination), and Sangat (collective decision-making).
- Oneness of God: Emphasized the message of “Ek Onkar Satnam,” advocating that all are equal.
- Core Values: His teachings centered on forgiveness, patience, kindness, and compassion, essential for fostering societal harmony.
- Just Society: He advocated “kirat karo” (honest work), “naam japo” (devotion), and “vand chhako” (sharing with others) to create a balanced and responsible community.
- Charity and Service: Promoted the concept of “dasvandh”, encouraging individuals to donate a tenth of their earnings to help the needy.
- Gender Equality: Taught that both men and women are equally valued and share God’s grace, advocating for gender justice.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Guru Nanak Dev Ji (c. 1469–1539 CE):
- Birth: Born in 1469 in Talwandi (now Nankana Sahib, Pakistan).
- Founder of Sikhism: Established the Sikh faith, rejecting caste discrimination and advocating for devotion to one formless, all-powerful, and truthful God.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- He denounced idol worship, pilgrimages, and caste distinctions, promoting a practical, ethical, and truthful way of life.
- Core Teachings: God conceptualised as Nirguna (attribute less) and Nirankar (formless).
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Aspects of Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s Life and Teachings:
- Egalitarian Society: Promoted equality through Langar (shared community meal), Pangat (eating together without discrimination), and Sangat (collective decision-making).
- Oneness of God: Emphasized the message of “Ek Onkar Satnam,” advocating that all are equal.
- Core Values: His teachings centered on forgiveness, patience, kindness, and compassion, essential for fostering societal harmony.
- Just Society: He advocated “kirat karo” (honest work), “naam japo” (devotion), and “vand chhako” (sharing with others) to create a balanced and responsible community.
- Charity and Service: Promoted the concept of “dasvandh”, encouraging individuals to donate a tenth of their earnings to help the needy.
- Gender Equality: Taught that both men and women are equally valued and share God’s grace, advocating for gender justice.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {IR – Groupings} Consider the following statements regarding ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus):
- ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its six Dialogue Partners to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region.
- It is the only official framework of Defense Ministers’ meetings in the Asia-Pacific Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only official framework of Defense Ministers’ meetings in the Asia-Pacific Region.
- The Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam in 2010. It meets annually since 2017.
- 11th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus was held in Lao PDR.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners, i.e. Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the US (collectively referred to as the “Plus Countries”).
- It aims to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only official framework of Defense Ministers’ meetings in the Asia-Pacific Region.
- The Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam in 2010. It meets annually since 2017.
- 11th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus was held in Lao PDR.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners, i.e. Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the US (collectively referred to as the “Plus Countries”).
- It aims to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- It is the only official framework of Defense Ministers’ meetings in the Asia-Pacific Region.
- The Inaugural ADMM-Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Viet Nam in 2010. It meets annually since 2017.
- 11th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus was held in Lao PDR.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- ADMM-Plus is a platform for ASEAN and its eight Dialogue Partners, i.e. Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Russia and the US (collectively referred to as the “Plus Countries”).
- It aims to strengthen security and defence cooperation for peace, stability, and development in the region.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {IR – Middle East} Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT):
- No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause is present in the treaty.
- Investors must exhaust local remedies for five years before initiating arbitration.
- It allows third-party funding for arbitration while restricting Investor-State Dispute Settlement (ISDS) in cases of proven investor misconduct.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Features of India-UAE BIT:
- Mandatory Local Remedies: Investors must exhaust local remedies for three years before initiating arbitration.
- Balance of Interests: The framework balances sovereign regulatory powers with investor protec-tion.
- Investment Coverage: Includes both direct and portfolio investments, simplifying jurisdiction by ex-cluding the “significance to host state development” clause.
- Transparency and Compensation: Ensures protection against expropriation, transparent dealings and compensation for losses.
- Exclusions: No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause to prevent misuse; taxation issues excluded to maintain India’s regulatory autonomy.
- Anti-Fraud Safeguards: Bars third-party funding for arbitration and restricts Investor-State Dis-pute Settlement (ISDS) in cases of proven investor misconduct.
Statement 1 is correct
- No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause is present so as to prevent misuse of the provision.
- Significance of India-UAE BIT:
- Economic Relations:
- UAE is India’s 7th largest FDI source with $19 billion in investments (April 2000-June 2024).
- Strengthens investor confidence by providing clear dispute resolution and equitable treatment.
- Sectoral Partnerships:
- Trade: UAE is India’s 3rd largest trading partner after the US and China.
- Energy: UAE is a key supplier of crude oil, LNG, and LPG to India.
- Defense: Collaboration through joint military exercises like Desert Cyclone.
- Economic Relations:
Answer: (d) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Features of India-UAE BIT:
- Mandatory Local Remedies: Investors must exhaust local remedies for three years before initiating arbitration.
- Balance of Interests: The framework balances sovereign regulatory powers with investor protec-tion.
- Investment Coverage: Includes both direct and portfolio investments, simplifying jurisdiction by ex-cluding the “significance to host state development” clause.
- Transparency and Compensation: Ensures protection against expropriation, transparent dealings and compensation for losses.
- Exclusions: No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause to prevent misuse; taxation issues excluded to maintain India’s regulatory autonomy.
- Anti-Fraud Safeguards: Bars third-party funding for arbitration and restricts Investor-State Dis-pute Settlement (ISDS) in cases of proven investor misconduct.
Statement 1 is correct
- No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause is present so as to prevent misuse of the provision.
- Significance of India-UAE BIT:
- Economic Relations:
- UAE is India’s 7th largest FDI source with $19 billion in investments (April 2000-June 2024).
- Strengthens investor confidence by providing clear dispute resolution and equitable treatment.
- Sectoral Partnerships:
- Trade: UAE is India’s 3rd largest trading partner after the US and China.
- Energy: UAE is a key supplier of crude oil, LNG, and LPG to India.
- Defense: Collaboration through joint military exercises like Desert Cyclone.
- Economic Relations:
Answer: (d) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Features of India-UAE BIT:
- Mandatory Local Remedies: Investors must exhaust local remedies for three years before initiating arbitration.
- Balance of Interests: The framework balances sovereign regulatory powers with investor protec-tion.
- Investment Coverage: Includes both direct and portfolio investments, simplifying jurisdiction by ex-cluding the “significance to host state development” clause.
- Transparency and Compensation: Ensures protection against expropriation, transparent dealings and compensation for losses.
- Exclusions: No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause to prevent misuse; taxation issues excluded to maintain India’s regulatory autonomy.
- Anti-Fraud Safeguards: Bars third-party funding for arbitration and restricts Investor-State Dis-pute Settlement (ISDS) in cases of proven investor misconduct.
Statement 1 is correct
- No Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause is present so as to prevent misuse of the provision.
- Significance of India-UAE BIT:
- Economic Relations:
- UAE is India’s 7th largest FDI source with $19 billion in investments (April 2000-June 2024).
- Strengthens investor confidence by providing clear dispute resolution and equitable treatment.
- Sectoral Partnerships:
- Trade: UAE is India’s 3rd largest trading partner after the US and China.
- Energy: UAE is a key supplier of crude oil, LNG, and LPG to India.
- Defense: Collaboration through joint military exercises like Desert Cyclone.
- Economic Relations:
Answer: (d) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements about Ustad Bismillah Khan:
- He was India’s one of the finest classical musicians who is credited for popularizing Tabla.
- He received all three Padma awards and the Bharat Ratna.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted for young performing art practitioners upto the age of 30 years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was India’s one of the finest classical musicians and played Shehnai.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan).
- After M S Subbalakshmi and Ravi Shankar, Bismillah Khan is the only third classical musician who received the Bharat Ratna.
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was credited for popularizing Shehnai, a reeded woodwind instrument.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted by Sangeet Natak Akademi in the name of Bharat Ratna Ustad Bismillah Khan for young performing art practitioners upto the age of 40 years in 2006.
- It is given annually to artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts and puppetry.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was India’s one of the finest classical musicians and played Shehnai.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan).
- After M S Subbalakshmi and Ravi Shankar, Bismillah Khan is the only third classical musician who received the Bharat Ratna.
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was credited for popularizing Shehnai, a reeded woodwind instrument.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted by Sangeet Natak Akademi in the name of Bharat Ratna Ustad Bismillah Khan for young performing art practitioners upto the age of 40 years in 2006.
- It is given annually to artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts and puppetry.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was India’s one of the finest classical musicians and played Shehnai.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan).
- After M S Subbalakshmi and Ravi Shankar, Bismillah Khan is the only third classical musician who received the Bharat Ratna.
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect
- Ustad Bismillah Khan was credited for popularizing Shehnai, a reeded woodwind instrument.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted by Sangeet Natak Akademi in the name of Bharat Ratna Ustad Bismillah Khan for young performing art practitioners upto the age of 40 years in 2006.
- It is given annually to artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts and puppetry.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Prelims – PIN India} Consider the following pairs:
Tiger Reserves State - Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla
Chhattisgarh - Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Maharashtra - Palamau
Jharkhand - Sanjay-Dubri
Madhya Pradesh How many of the pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Only three pairs are correct
Tiger Reserves State - Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla
Chhattisgarh - Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Madhya Pradesh - Palamau
Jharkhand - Sanjay-Dubri
Madhya Pradesh Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Only three pairs are correct
Tiger Reserves State - Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla
Chhattisgarh - Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Madhya Pradesh - Palamau
Jharkhand - Sanjay-Dubri
Madhya Pradesh Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Only three pairs are correct
Tiger Reserves State - Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla
Chhattisgarh - Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Madhya Pradesh - Palamau
Jharkhand - Sanjay-Dubri
Madhya Pradesh Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
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