November 15 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – November 15 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {IR – India-Australia} Which of the following is not an eligibility criterion for the MATES scheme under the Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA) between Australia and India?
Correct
Explanation
- The Department of Home Affairs of Australia gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years through the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES).
- The Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA), signed in 2023 between Australia and India to foster two-way migration and mobility while addressing illegal and irregular migration.
Option (b) is incorrect and option (a), (c), (d) are correct
- Eligibility Criteria for MATES:
- Age Limit: Indian nationals aged 30 or younger at the time of application.
- Language Proficiency: Proficient English, with an overall IELTS or equivalent score of at least six.
- Educational Qualifications:
- Graduates within two years from an eligible educational institution at the time of application.
- A Bachelor’s degree or higher in renewable energy, mining, engineering, Information Communications Technology (ICT), AI, financial technology (FinTech), or agricultural technology (AgriTech).
- Eligible Institutions: Graduates from the top 100 universities in India as per the NIRF 2024 ranking.
- Visa Process: The visa will be granted through a ballot system that randomly selects applicants.
Answer: (b) Graduates from any Indian university; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Department of Home Affairs of Australia gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years through the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES).
- The Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA), signed in 2023 between Australia and India to foster two-way migration and mobility while addressing illegal and irregular migration.
Option (b) is incorrect and option (a), (c), (d) are correct
- Eligibility Criteria for MATES:
- Age Limit: Indian nationals aged 30 or younger at the time of application.
- Language Proficiency: Proficient English, with an overall IELTS or equivalent score of at least six.
- Educational Qualifications:
- Graduates within two years from an eligible educational institution at the time of application.
- A Bachelor’s degree or higher in renewable energy, mining, engineering, Information Communications Technology (ICT), AI, financial technology (FinTech), or agricultural technology (AgriTech).
- Eligible Institutions: Graduates from the top 100 universities in India as per the NIRF 2024 ranking.
- Visa Process: The visa will be granted through a ballot system that randomly selects applicants.
Answer: (b) Graduates from any Indian university; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Department of Home Affairs of Australia gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years through the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES).
- The Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA), signed in 2023 between Australia and India to foster two-way migration and mobility while addressing illegal and irregular migration.
Option (b) is incorrect and option (a), (c), (d) are correct
- Eligibility Criteria for MATES:
- Age Limit: Indian nationals aged 30 or younger at the time of application.
- Language Proficiency: Proficient English, with an overall IELTS or equivalent score of at least six.
- Educational Qualifications:
- Graduates within two years from an eligible educational institution at the time of application.
- A Bachelor’s degree or higher in renewable energy, mining, engineering, Information Communications Technology (ICT), AI, financial technology (FinTech), or agricultural technology (AgriTech).
- Eligible Institutions: Graduates from the top 100 universities in India as per the NIRF 2024 ranking.
- Visa Process: The visa will be granted through a ballot system that randomly selects applicants.
Answer: (b) Graduates from any Indian university; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Polity – Cooperatives} Consider the following initiatives aimed at strengthening the cooperative sector in India:
- RBI Umbrella Support for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)
- Digitization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
- Expansion of PACS into fuel and LPG distribution
- Issuance of ₹2,000 crore National Cooperative Development Corporation Bonds
- Establishment of National Cooperative Organic Limited (NCOL)
- Multi-State Cooperative Societies Amendment Act, 2023
Which of the initiatives listed above are expected to contribute significantly to strengthening India’s cooperative sector?
Correct
Explanation
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
Option (d) is correct
- Government Initiatives to Strengthen Cooperatives:
- RBI Umbrella Support: An RBI-approved Umbrella Organization (Registrar of Co-operative Societies in each state) aids urban cooperative banks (UCBs), enhancing their financial resilience.
- Rural Storage Expansion: Under the Decentralized Grain Storage Plan, 2,000 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) now provide rural storage facilities.
- PACS Digitization: A ₹2,516 crore project digitized over 15,000 PACS, improving transparency and functionality, supported by a National Cooperative Database for record-keeping.
- PACS Retail Expansion: PACS are expanding into fuel and LPG distribution, further diversifying services available to rural areas.
- NCDC Bonds and E-Services: The National Cooperative Development Corporation issued ₹2,000 crore in bonds, while PACS as Common Service Centers now offer 300+ e-services for rural communities.
- Organic Agriculture Support: National Cooperative Organic Limited (NCOL) was set up to promote organic farming, reinforcing sustainable agriculture practices.
- Multi-State Cooperative Societies Amendment Act, 2023.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
Option (d) is correct
- Government Initiatives to Strengthen Cooperatives:
- RBI Umbrella Support: An RBI-approved Umbrella Organization (Registrar of Co-operative Societies in each state) aids urban cooperative banks (UCBs), enhancing their financial resilience.
- Rural Storage Expansion: Under the Decentralized Grain Storage Plan, 2,000 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) now provide rural storage facilities.
- PACS Digitization: A ₹2,516 crore project digitized over 15,000 PACS, improving transparency and functionality, supported by a National Cooperative Database for record-keeping.
- PACS Retail Expansion: PACS are expanding into fuel and LPG distribution, further diversifying services available to rural areas.
- NCDC Bonds and E-Services: The National Cooperative Development Corporation issued ₹2,000 crore in bonds, while PACS as Common Service Centers now offer 300+ e-services for rural communities.
- Organic Agriculture Support: National Cooperative Organic Limited (NCOL) was set up to promote organic farming, reinforcing sustainable agriculture practices.
- Multi-State Cooperative Societies Amendment Act, 2023.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
Option (d) is correct
- Government Initiatives to Strengthen Cooperatives:
- RBI Umbrella Support: An RBI-approved Umbrella Organization (Registrar of Co-operative Societies in each state) aids urban cooperative banks (UCBs), enhancing their financial resilience.
- Rural Storage Expansion: Under the Decentralized Grain Storage Plan, 2,000 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) now provide rural storage facilities.
- PACS Digitization: A ₹2,516 crore project digitized over 15,000 PACS, improving transparency and functionality, supported by a National Cooperative Database for record-keeping.
- PACS Retail Expansion: PACS are expanding into fuel and LPG distribution, further diversifying services available to rural areas.
- NCDC Bonds and E-Services: The National Cooperative Development Corporation issued ₹2,000 crore in bonds, while PACS as Common Service Centers now offer 300+ e-services for rural communities.
- Organic Agriculture Support: National Cooperative Organic Limited (NCOL) was set up to promote organic farming, reinforcing sustainable agriculture practices.
- Multi-State Cooperative Societies Amendment Act, 2023.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6; Difficulty Level: Hard
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Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Polity – Cooperatives} Consider the following statements about the Consumers’ Cooperative Society:
- Kendriya Bhandar is an example of a Consumers’ Cooperative Society in India.
- Consumers’ Cooperative Society offers goods at reasonable prices to its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statements are correct
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
- Types of Cooperatives:
- Consumers’ Cooperative Society: Offers goods at reasonable prices (e.g., Kendriya Bhandar).
- Producers’ Cooperative Society: Supports production (e.g., Haryana Handloom).
- Cooperative Marketing Society: Aids in marketing member products (e.g., AMUL).
- Credit Cooperative Society: Provides fair-interest loans (e.g., Urban Cooperative Banks).
- Farming Cooperative Society: Facilitates benefits of large-scale farming.
- Housing Cooperative Society: Ensures affordable housing (Metropolitan Housing Cooperative Society).
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statements are correct
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
- Types of Cooperatives:
- Consumers’ Cooperative Society: Offers goods at reasonable prices (e.g., Kendriya Bhandar).
- Producers’ Cooperative Society: Supports production (e.g., Haryana Handloom).
- Cooperative Marketing Society: Aids in marketing member products (e.g., AMUL).
- Credit Cooperative Society: Provides fair-interest loans (e.g., Urban Cooperative Banks).
- Farming Cooperative Society: Facilitates benefits of large-scale farming.
- Housing Cooperative Society: Ensures affordable housing (Metropolitan Housing Cooperative Society).
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statements are correct
- A co-operative is a member-owned association aimed at meeting common economic, social, and cultural needs through democratically controlled enterprises (International Cooperative Alliance).
- Types of Cooperatives:
- Consumers’ Cooperative Society: Offers goods at reasonable prices (e.g., Kendriya Bhandar).
- Producers’ Cooperative Society: Supports production (e.g., Haryana Handloom).
- Cooperative Marketing Society: Aids in marketing member products (e.g., AMUL).
- Credit Cooperative Society: Provides fair-interest loans (e.g., Urban Cooperative Banks).
- Farming Cooperative Society: Facilitates benefits of large-scale farming.
- Housing Cooperative Society: Ensures affordable housing (Metropolitan Housing Cooperative Society).
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s judgment on accessibility standards for public spaces and services under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act:
- The Supreme Court directed the Union government to enforce mandatory accessibility standards for public spaces and services, affirming accessibility as a fundamental right under the RPwD Act.
- The Court declared Rule 15(1) of the RPwD Rules ultra vires, citing the lack of enforceable “non-negotiable” standards, and instructed the government to frame compulsory rules within six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
- Supreme Court’s Observations and Ruling:
- SC judgment directed the Union government to enforce mandatory accessibility standards for public spaces and services, affirming accessibility as a fundamental right under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act.
- Non-Compliance with RPwD Act Intent: The Supreme Court noted that the RPwD Act created a mandatory compliance mechanism, but the 2017 rules were implemented only as optional guidelines.
- Mandatory Standards Directive: The Court declared Rule 15(1) of the RPwD Rules ultra vires (beyond the powers of) the Act, citing the lack of “non-negotiable” standards. It instructed the Centre to issue compulsory, enforceable rules within three months from the judgment.
- Mandatory Rules: The SC directed the Union government to frame mandatory rules within three months and consult stakeholders and NALSAR’s Centre for Disability Studies.
- Implementation and Penalties: Once enforced, non-compliance could result in penalties, including withholding completion certificates and imposing fines for inaccessible infrastructure.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
- Supreme Court’s Observations and Ruling:
- SC judgment directed the Union government to enforce mandatory accessibility standards for public spaces and services, affirming accessibility as a fundamental right under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act.
- Non-Compliance with RPwD Act Intent: The Supreme Court noted that the RPwD Act created a mandatory compliance mechanism, but the 2017 rules were implemented only as optional guidelines.
- Mandatory Standards Directive: The Court declared Rule 15(1) of the RPwD Rules ultra vires (beyond the powers of) the Act, citing the lack of “non-negotiable” standards. It instructed the Centre to issue compulsory, enforceable rules within three months from the judgment.
- Mandatory Rules: The SC directed the Union government to frame mandatory rules within three months and consult stakeholders and NALSAR’s Centre for Disability Studies.
- Implementation and Penalties: Once enforced, non-compliance could result in penalties, including withholding completion certificates and imposing fines for inaccessible infrastructure.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
- Supreme Court’s Observations and Ruling:
- SC judgment directed the Union government to enforce mandatory accessibility standards for public spaces and services, affirming accessibility as a fundamental right under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act.
- Non-Compliance with RPwD Act Intent: The Supreme Court noted that the RPwD Act created a mandatory compliance mechanism, but the 2017 rules were implemented only as optional guidelines.
- Mandatory Standards Directive: The Court declared Rule 15(1) of the RPwD Rules ultra vires (beyond the powers of) the Act, citing the lack of “non-negotiable” standards. It instructed the Centre to issue compulsory, enforceable rules within three months from the judgment.
- Mandatory Rules: The SC directed the Union government to frame mandatory rules within three months and consult stakeholders and NALSAR’s Centre for Disability Studies.
- Implementation and Penalties: Once enforced, non-compliance could result in penalties, including withholding completion certificates and imposing fines for inaccessible infrastructure.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – S&T – Defence} Consider the following statements about a Rocket Launcher System:
- Recently, DRDO has successfully completed the Guided Weapon System Flight Tests of this launcher system as part of Provisional Staff Qualitative Requirements (PSQR) Validation Trials.
- It was developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a laboratory under the DRDO.
- The system can fire 12 rockets per launcher in 44 seconds.
- Its enhanced versions have maximum ranges of 45 km and 90 km.
- It was extensively used during the Kargil War.
Identify the system based on the clues provided above:
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher System was developed by ARDE, a DRDO laboratory.
- It has a maximum range of 45 km for the Mark-I Enhanced version and 90 km for the Mark-II ER version.
- It can fire 12 rockets in 44 seconds and played a key role during the Kargil War, showcasing its effectiveness in high-altitude warfare.
Answer: (b) Pinaka; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher System was developed by ARDE, a DRDO laboratory.
- It has a maximum range of 45 km for the Mark-I Enhanced version and 90 km for the Mark-II ER version.
- It can fire 12 rockets in 44 seconds and played a key role during the Kargil War, showcasing its effectiveness in high-altitude warfare.
Answer: (b) Pinaka; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher System was developed by ARDE, a DRDO laboratory.
- It has a maximum range of 45 km for the Mark-I Enhanced version and 90 km for the Mark-II ER version.
- It can fire 12 rockets in 44 seconds and played a key role during the Kargil War, showcasing its effectiveness in high-altitude warfare.
Answer: (b) Pinaka; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – In News} Which of the following statements regarding ‘Operation Dronagiri’ is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is incorrect
- The Ministry of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri and Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface (GDI).
- It was launched under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 and is a pilot project aimed at showcasing the potential of geospatial technologies to enhance quality of life and ease of doing business.
- Its objective is to demonstrate geospatial innovations in agriculture, livelihoods, logistics, and transport.
- It does not prioritize agriculture over other sectors.
- Phase 1: UP, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra on pilot basis.
- Technological Backbone: Integrated GDI for seamless spatial data access.
- Managed by: IIT Tirupati Navavishkar I-Hub Foundation (IITTNiF).
- Implementing Agency: Geospatial Innovation Cell, Department of Science and Technology.
Answer: (c) It demonstrate geospatial innovations majorly in agriculture, with limited application in logistics; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is incorrect
- The Ministry of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri and Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface (GDI).
- It was launched under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 and is a pilot project aimed at showcasing the potential of geospatial technologies to enhance quality of life and ease of doing business.
- Its objective is to demonstrate geospatial innovations in agriculture, livelihoods, logistics, and transport.
- It does not prioritize agriculture over other sectors.
- Phase 1: UP, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra on pilot basis.
- Technological Backbone: Integrated GDI for seamless spatial data access.
- Managed by: IIT Tirupati Navavishkar I-Hub Foundation (IITTNiF).
- Implementing Agency: Geospatial Innovation Cell, Department of Science and Technology.
Answer: (c) It demonstrate geospatial innovations majorly in agriculture, with limited application in logistics; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is incorrect
- The Ministry of Science and Technology launched Operation Dronagiri and Integrated Geospatial Data Sharing Interface (GDI).
- It was launched under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 and is a pilot project aimed at showcasing the potential of geospatial technologies to enhance quality of life and ease of doing business.
- Its objective is to demonstrate geospatial innovations in agriculture, livelihoods, logistics, and transport.
- It does not prioritize agriculture over other sectors.
- Phase 1: UP, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra on pilot basis.
- Technological Backbone: Integrated GDI for seamless spatial data access.
- Managed by: IIT Tirupati Navavishkar I-Hub Foundation (IITTNiF).
- Implementing Agency: Geospatial Innovation Cell, Department of Science and Technology.
Answer: (c) It demonstrate geospatial innovations majorly in agriculture, with limited application in logistics; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Which of the following best describes the significance of the “Kenyan Lesser Mealworm”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Scientists have discovered that “Kenyan lesser mealworm” larvae can consume polystyrene, a type of plastic commonly known as styrofoam.
- The lesser mealworm, the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, has a larval period of 8 to 10 weeks and thrives in warm environments such as poultry-rearing houses.
- Originating in Africa, these mealworms can be found globally, but the specific sub-species are identified in this region.
- Trials over a month showed that mealworms fed a combination of polystyrene and bran survived at higher rates and consumed polystyrene more efficiently than those on a polystyrene-only diet.
- A balanced diet is crucial for insects to efficiently degrade plastic, indicating that polystyrene provides an energy source due to its carbon and hydrogen composition.
Answer: (a) A natural solution for biodegrading polystyrene plastic waste; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Scientists have discovered that “Kenyan lesser mealworm” larvae can consume polystyrene, a type of plastic commonly known as styrofoam.
- The lesser mealworm, the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, has a larval period of 8 to 10 weeks and thrives in warm environments such as poultry-rearing houses.
- Originating in Africa, these mealworms can be found globally, but the specific sub-species are identified in this region.
- Trials over a month showed that mealworms fed a combination of polystyrene and bran survived at higher rates and consumed polystyrene more efficiently than those on a polystyrene-only diet.
- A balanced diet is crucial for insects to efficiently degrade plastic, indicating that polystyrene provides an energy source due to its carbon and hydrogen composition.
Answer: (a) A natural solution for biodegrading polystyrene plastic waste; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Scientists have discovered that “Kenyan lesser mealworm” larvae can consume polystyrene, a type of plastic commonly known as styrofoam.
- The lesser mealworm, the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, has a larval period of 8 to 10 weeks and thrives in warm environments such as poultry-rearing houses.
- Originating in Africa, these mealworms can be found globally, but the specific sub-species are identified in this region.
- Trials over a month showed that mealworms fed a combination of polystyrene and bran survived at higher rates and consumed polystyrene more efficiently than those on a polystyrene-only diet.
- A balanced diet is crucial for insects to efficiently degrade plastic, indicating that polystyrene provides an energy source due to its carbon and hydrogen composition.
Answer: (a) A natural solution for biodegrading polystyrene plastic waste; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements regarding Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
- D-SIBs are banks whose failure could disrupt the financial system due to their size, complexity, and interconnectedness.
- The RBI established the framework for identifying D-SIBs and implemented it in 2015.
- All foreign banks classified as D-SIBs, must maintain an additional Common Equity Tier 2.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- D-SIBs are banks whose potential failure could severely disrupt the financial system due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity, lack of substitutability, and interconnectedness.
- These banks are considered ‘Too Big to Fail (TBTF)’, highlighting the critical impact their failure could have on the overall economy.
- The framework for handling D-SIBs was established by the RBI in 2014 and implemented in 2015.
- RBI assesses these banks based on their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs) and assigns them to specific buckets. Based on that, a D-SIB must adhere to additional common equity requirements.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- If a foreign bank with branches in India is designated as a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it must maintain an additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital surcharge in India.
- This surcharge is proportionate to India’s bank’s Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
Answer: (a) 1and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- D-SIBs are banks whose potential failure could severely disrupt the financial system due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity, lack of substitutability, and interconnectedness.
- These banks are considered ‘Too Big to Fail (TBTF)’, highlighting the critical impact their failure could have on the overall economy.
- The framework for handling D-SIBs was established by the RBI in 2014 and implemented in 2015.
- RBI assesses these banks based on their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs) and assigns them to specific buckets. Based on that, a D-SIB must adhere to additional common equity requirements.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- If a foreign bank with branches in India is designated as a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it must maintain an additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital surcharge in India.
- This surcharge is proportionate to India’s bank’s Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
Answer: (a) 1and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- D-SIBs are banks whose potential failure could severely disrupt the financial system due to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities, complexity, lack of substitutability, and interconnectedness.
- These banks are considered ‘Too Big to Fail (TBTF)’, highlighting the critical impact their failure could have on the overall economy.
- The framework for handling D-SIBs was established by the RBI in 2014 and implemented in 2015.
- RBI assesses these banks based on their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs) and assigns them to specific buckets. Based on that, a D-SIB must adhere to additional common equity requirements.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- If a foreign bank with branches in India is designated as a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it must maintain an additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital surcharge in India.
- This surcharge is proportionate to India’s bank’s Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
Answer: (a) 1and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
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