November 06 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – November 06 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {IR – Groupings} Recently, the third edition of the MAHASAGAR initiative was conducted. In this context, consider the following statements:
- The initiative is an annual exercise conducted by the Indian Navy.
- It was launched in 2015 to showcase India’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- Kenya and Tanzania participated in the third edition of the MAHASAGAR initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 3 is correct
- MAHASAGAR is a high-level virtual interaction among leadership in Bangladesh, Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and Tanzania.
- Theme: Training Cooperation to Mitigate Common Maritime Security Challenges in Indian Ocean Region.
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- The third edition of MAHASAGAR (Maritime Heads for Active Security And Growth for All in the Region), is a bi-annual initiative conducted by the Indian Navy.
- SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region) was launched in 2015. It is India’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- MAHASAGAR resonates with the government’s SAGAR vision.
Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 3 is correct
- MAHASAGAR is a high-level virtual interaction among leadership in Bangladesh, Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and Tanzania.
- Theme: Training Cooperation to Mitigate Common Maritime Security Challenges in Indian Ocean Region.
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- The third edition of MAHASAGAR (Maritime Heads for Active Security And Growth for All in the Region), is a bi-annual initiative conducted by the Indian Navy.
- SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region) was launched in 2015. It is India’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- MAHASAGAR resonates with the government’s SAGAR vision.
Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 3 is correct
- MAHASAGAR is a high-level virtual interaction among leadership in Bangladesh, Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, and Tanzania.
- Theme: Training Cooperation to Mitigate Common Maritime Security Challenges in Indian Ocean Region.
Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
- The third edition of MAHASAGAR (Maritime Heads for Active Security And Growth for All in the Region), is a bi-annual initiative conducted by the Indian Navy.
- SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region) was launched in 2015. It is India’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- MAHASAGAR resonates with the government’s SAGAR vision.
Answer: (d) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {IR – Diaspora} Musaned portal, sometimes seen in news, was launched by which of the following countries?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Introduced in 2014, the Musaned platform ensures transparent recruitment through licensed agencies, offering digital contracts and wage tracking for female workers.
- Saudi Arabia has reduced female unemployment from 14.2% to 12.8% in 2024, fostering an environment where women can thrive professionally and personally.
-
- Historic Partnership: The India-Saudi Arabia relationship, established in 1947, is based on strong economic, diplomatic, and socio-cultural ties.
- Large Indian Expatriate Community: Over 2.7 million Indians reside in Saudi Arabia, contributing to sectors like construction, healthcare, education, and IT.
- Economic Contribution: Indian workers in Saudi Arabia send over US $11 billion in remittances to India annually, supporting the Indian economy.
- Trade and Investment: Bilateral trade between the countries is robust, and joint ventures, such as the Ratnagiri refinery, enhance economic collaboration.
- Pilgrimage: Saudi Arabia facilitates the Hajj pilgrimage for more than 1.75 lakh Indians annually.
- Strategic Partnership: Saudi Arabia is one of India’s key strategic partners, collaborating in political engagement, trade, investment, and security.
- Energy Security: Saudi Arabia is a major supplier of crude oil and LPG to India.
- Security: Cooperation on counter-terrorism, intelligence sharing & joint defense initiatives.
- Development and Infrastructure: Saudi Arabia’s Vision 2030 offers opportunities for Indian companies to participate in large-scale infrastructure and development projects.
-
- Strategic Partnership: Established by the 2010 Riyadh Declaration, focusing on political, security, trade, investment, and cultural collaboration.
- Security and Defence: Shared concerns over terrorism led to agreements like the 2016 MoU on counter-terrorism and a 2014 MoU for defence cooperation, including joint naval exercises.
- Trade and Energy: Bilateral trade reached $27.48 billion in 2017-18. Saudi Arabia supplies 17% of India’s crude oil and 32% of LPG, with joint ventures like the $44 billion Ratnagiri Refinery project.
- Diverse Collaboration: Includes sectors like fertilisers, food security, renewable energy, ICT, healthcare, infrastructure, and civil aviation.
-
- Skills Verification Program: Aims to certify Indian workers’ skills to meet Saudi employment standards, enhancing job prospects for Indian expatriates.
- Bilateral Collaborations: An MoU between Saudi Arabia’s Ministry of Human Resources and India’s NSDC facilitates knowledge exchange and workforce skill development.
- Labor Reform Initiative (LRI): Introduced in 2021, the LRI focuses on worker mobility, improved contractual relationships, and enhanced legal protections for expatriate workers, ensuring fair wages and better working conditions.
Answer: (a) Saudi Arabia; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Introduced in 2014, the Musaned platform ensures transparent recruitment through licensed agencies, offering digital contracts and wage tracking for female workers.
- Saudi Arabia has reduced female unemployment from 14.2% to 12.8% in 2024, fostering an environment where women can thrive professionally and personally.
-
- Historic Partnership: The India-Saudi Arabia relationship, established in 1947, is based on strong economic, diplomatic, and socio-cultural ties.
- Large Indian Expatriate Community: Over 2.7 million Indians reside in Saudi Arabia, contributing to sectors like construction, healthcare, education, and IT.
- Economic Contribution: Indian workers in Saudi Arabia send over US $11 billion in remittances to India annually, supporting the Indian economy.
- Trade and Investment: Bilateral trade between the countries is robust, and joint ventures, such as the Ratnagiri refinery, enhance economic collaboration.
- Pilgrimage: Saudi Arabia facilitates the Hajj pilgrimage for more than 1.75 lakh Indians annually.
- Strategic Partnership: Saudi Arabia is one of India’s key strategic partners, collaborating in political engagement, trade, investment, and security.
- Energy Security: Saudi Arabia is a major supplier of crude oil and LPG to India.
- Security: Cooperation on counter-terrorism, intelligence sharing & joint defense initiatives.
- Development and Infrastructure: Saudi Arabia’s Vision 2030 offers opportunities for Indian companies to participate in large-scale infrastructure and development projects.
-
- Strategic Partnership: Established by the 2010 Riyadh Declaration, focusing on political, security, trade, investment, and cultural collaboration.
- Security and Defence: Shared concerns over terrorism led to agreements like the 2016 MoU on counter-terrorism and a 2014 MoU for defence cooperation, including joint naval exercises.
- Trade and Energy: Bilateral trade reached $27.48 billion in 2017-18. Saudi Arabia supplies 17% of India’s crude oil and 32% of LPG, with joint ventures like the $44 billion Ratnagiri Refinery project.
- Diverse Collaboration: Includes sectors like fertilisers, food security, renewable energy, ICT, healthcare, infrastructure, and civil aviation.
-
- Skills Verification Program: Aims to certify Indian workers’ skills to meet Saudi employment standards, enhancing job prospects for Indian expatriates.
- Bilateral Collaborations: An MoU between Saudi Arabia’s Ministry of Human Resources and India’s NSDC facilitates knowledge exchange and workforce skill development.
- Labor Reform Initiative (LRI): Introduced in 2021, the LRI focuses on worker mobility, improved contractual relationships, and enhanced legal protections for expatriate workers, ensuring fair wages and better working conditions.
Answer: (a) Saudi Arabia; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Introduced in 2014, the Musaned platform ensures transparent recruitment through licensed agencies, offering digital contracts and wage tracking for female workers.
- Saudi Arabia has reduced female unemployment from 14.2% to 12.8% in 2024, fostering an environment where women can thrive professionally and personally.
-
- Historic Partnership: The India-Saudi Arabia relationship, established in 1947, is based on strong economic, diplomatic, and socio-cultural ties.
- Large Indian Expatriate Community: Over 2.7 million Indians reside in Saudi Arabia, contributing to sectors like construction, healthcare, education, and IT.
- Economic Contribution: Indian workers in Saudi Arabia send over US $11 billion in remittances to India annually, supporting the Indian economy.
- Trade and Investment: Bilateral trade between the countries is robust, and joint ventures, such as the Ratnagiri refinery, enhance economic collaboration.
- Pilgrimage: Saudi Arabia facilitates the Hajj pilgrimage for more than 1.75 lakh Indians annually.
- Strategic Partnership: Saudi Arabia is one of India’s key strategic partners, collaborating in political engagement, trade, investment, and security.
- Energy Security: Saudi Arabia is a major supplier of crude oil and LPG to India.
- Security: Cooperation on counter-terrorism, intelligence sharing & joint defense initiatives.
- Development and Infrastructure: Saudi Arabia’s Vision 2030 offers opportunities for Indian companies to participate in large-scale infrastructure and development projects.
-
- Strategic Partnership: Established by the 2010 Riyadh Declaration, focusing on political, security, trade, investment, and cultural collaboration.
- Security and Defence: Shared concerns over terrorism led to agreements like the 2016 MoU on counter-terrorism and a 2014 MoU for defence cooperation, including joint naval exercises.
- Trade and Energy: Bilateral trade reached $27.48 billion in 2017-18. Saudi Arabia supplies 17% of India’s crude oil and 32% of LPG, with joint ventures like the $44 billion Ratnagiri Refinery project.
- Diverse Collaboration: Includes sectors like fertilisers, food security, renewable energy, ICT, healthcare, infrastructure, and civil aviation.
-
- Skills Verification Program: Aims to certify Indian workers’ skills to meet Saudi employment standards, enhancing job prospects for Indian expatriates.
- Bilateral Collaborations: An MoU between Saudi Arabia’s Ministry of Human Resources and India’s NSDC facilitates knowledge exchange and workforce skill development.
- Labor Reform Initiative (LRI): Introduced in 2021, the LRI focuses on worker mobility, improved contractual relationships, and enhanced legal protections for expatriate workers, ensuring fair wages and better working conditions.
Answer: (a) Saudi Arabia; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following statements:
- The state can acquire private property only with clear, transparent justification for public welfare.
- Article 31A advocate for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 1 is correct
- SC’s 9-judge Constitution Bench reinterpreted Art. 39(b) to limit government’s power to acquire privately owned properties under the guise of ‘material resources of the community’.
- It clarifies the balance between individual property rights and state intervention for public welfare.
- Article 39(b) sadvocates for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good
-
- Key Ruling: The Court ruled that the state can acquire private property only with clear, transparent justification for public welfare, ensuring fairness to private owners.
-
Criteria for ‘Material Resources of the Community’:
- Purpose and Public Utility: Only properties essential for societal welfare — such as infrastructure, energy, and water resources, qualify as material resources for state acquisition.
- Proportionality and Fairness: Any state acquisition must balance public welfare benefits with the impact on private owners, justifying the acquisition.
- Economic Impact and Social Equity: Resources with a pronounced economic or societal impact qualify, but general private property does not.
- Articles 19(1)(f) and 31: Originally, the right to property was guaranteed as a fundamental right.
- 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Removed property as a fundamental right, introducing Article 300A as a constitutional right, stating that no one can be deprived of property without lawful authority.
- Article 39(b): DPSP advocating for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good.
- Article 31C: Provides immunity to laws aligned with Articles 39(b) and 39(c), stating they cannot be challenged under Articles 14 (right to equality) or 19 (right to freedom) if they promote public welfare.
-
- State of Karnataka v. Shri Ranganatha Reddy (1977): Held that private resources should generally not fall under “material resources of the community.” However, Justice Krishna Iyer dissented, suggesting that private resources could be included to promote socialist redistributive justice.
- Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing v. Bharat Coking Coal (1983): This case Supported Iyer’s view, allowing the nationalisation of coal mines as material resources for the community.
- Mafatlal Industries v. Union of India (1996): Further expanded the scope of Article 39(b), indicating it could include private and public assets for material needs.
-
- Strengthened Individual Property Rights: Private property can only be acquired with clear, substantial public welfare justification, ensuring the protection of individual rights.
- Transparency in State Acquisitions: The state must present clear evidence that acquisitions serve verified public welfare needs.
- Curtailed State Power: Limits Article 39(b) to prevent arbitrary classification of private property as ‘community resources’, minimising overreach.
- Enhanced Investment Climate: Reinforced property protections build investor confidence, making ownership more predictable and stable.
- Targeted Redistribution for Social Equity: Article 39(b) is now restricted to policies with direct public benefits, promoting fairness and reinforcing a secure environment for high-value assets.
- Sectoral Boost for Economic Growth: By securing property rights, the ruling supports real estate and industrial growth, positively impacting the economy.
-
- Empowering Judicial Oversight: Courts should be empowered to rigorously assess state actions regarding property, ensuring acquisitions meet standards of fairness, proportionality, and necessity.
- Refined Legislative and Judicial Scrutiny: Future laws invoking Article 39(b) must justify property acquisitions as essential for public welfare, with stricter scrutiny by courts.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 1 is correct
- SC’s 9-judge Constitution Bench reinterpreted Art. 39(b) to limit government’s power to acquire privately owned properties under the guise of ‘material resources of the community’.
- It clarifies the balance between individual property rights and state intervention for public welfare.
- Article 39(b) sadvocates for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good
-
- Key Ruling: The Court ruled that the state can acquire private property only with clear, transparent justification for public welfare, ensuring fairness to private owners.
-
Criteria for ‘Material Resources of the Community’:
- Purpose and Public Utility: Only properties essential for societal welfare — such as infrastructure, energy, and water resources, qualify as material resources for state acquisition.
- Proportionality and Fairness: Any state acquisition must balance public welfare benefits with the impact on private owners, justifying the acquisition.
- Economic Impact and Social Equity: Resources with a pronounced economic or societal impact qualify, but general private property does not.
- Articles 19(1)(f) and 31: Originally, the right to property was guaranteed as a fundamental right.
- 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Removed property as a fundamental right, introducing Article 300A as a constitutional right, stating that no one can be deprived of property without lawful authority.
- Article 39(b): DPSP advocating for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good.
- Article 31C: Provides immunity to laws aligned with Articles 39(b) and 39(c), stating they cannot be challenged under Articles 14 (right to equality) or 19 (right to freedom) if they promote public welfare.
-
- State of Karnataka v. Shri Ranganatha Reddy (1977): Held that private resources should generally not fall under “material resources of the community.” However, Justice Krishna Iyer dissented, suggesting that private resources could be included to promote socialist redistributive justice.
- Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing v. Bharat Coking Coal (1983): This case Supported Iyer’s view, allowing the nationalisation of coal mines as material resources for the community.
- Mafatlal Industries v. Union of India (1996): Further expanded the scope of Article 39(b), indicating it could include private and public assets for material needs.
-
- Strengthened Individual Property Rights: Private property can only be acquired with clear, substantial public welfare justification, ensuring the protection of individual rights.
- Transparency in State Acquisitions: The state must present clear evidence that acquisitions serve verified public welfare needs.
- Curtailed State Power: Limits Article 39(b) to prevent arbitrary classification of private property as ‘community resources’, minimising overreach.
- Enhanced Investment Climate: Reinforced property protections build investor confidence, making ownership more predictable and stable.
- Targeted Redistribution for Social Equity: Article 39(b) is now restricted to policies with direct public benefits, promoting fairness and reinforcing a secure environment for high-value assets.
- Sectoral Boost for Economic Growth: By securing property rights, the ruling supports real estate and industrial growth, positively impacting the economy.
-
- Empowering Judicial Oversight: Courts should be empowered to rigorously assess state actions regarding property, ensuring acquisitions meet standards of fairness, proportionality, and necessity.
- Refined Legislative and Judicial Scrutiny: Future laws invoking Article 39(b) must justify property acquisitions as essential for public welfare, with stricter scrutiny by courts.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 1 is correct
- SC’s 9-judge Constitution Bench reinterpreted Art. 39(b) to limit government’s power to acquire privately owned properties under the guise of ‘material resources of the community’.
- It clarifies the balance between individual property rights and state intervention for public welfare.
- Article 39(b) sadvocates for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good
-
- Key Ruling: The Court ruled that the state can acquire private property only with clear, transparent justification for public welfare, ensuring fairness to private owners.
-
Criteria for ‘Material Resources of the Community’:
- Purpose and Public Utility: Only properties essential for societal welfare — such as infrastructure, energy, and water resources, qualify as material resources for state acquisition.
- Proportionality and Fairness: Any state acquisition must balance public welfare benefits with the impact on private owners, justifying the acquisition.
- Economic Impact and Social Equity: Resources with a pronounced economic or societal impact qualify, but general private property does not.
- Articles 19(1)(f) and 31: Originally, the right to property was guaranteed as a fundamental right.
- 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Removed property as a fundamental right, introducing Article 300A as a constitutional right, stating that no one can be deprived of property without lawful authority.
- Article 39(b): DPSP advocating for equitable distribution of ‘material resources’ to serve common good.
- Article 31C: Provides immunity to laws aligned with Articles 39(b) and 39(c), stating they cannot be challenged under Articles 14 (right to equality) or 19 (right to freedom) if they promote public welfare.
-
- State of Karnataka v. Shri Ranganatha Reddy (1977): Held that private resources should generally not fall under “material resources of the community.” However, Justice Krishna Iyer dissented, suggesting that private resources could be included to promote socialist redistributive justice.
- Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing v. Bharat Coking Coal (1983): This case Supported Iyer’s view, allowing the nationalisation of coal mines as material resources for the community.
- Mafatlal Industries v. Union of India (1996): Further expanded the scope of Article 39(b), indicating it could include private and public assets for material needs.
-
- Strengthened Individual Property Rights: Private property can only be acquired with clear, substantial public welfare justification, ensuring the protection of individual rights.
- Transparency in State Acquisitions: The state must present clear evidence that acquisitions serve verified public welfare needs.
- Curtailed State Power: Limits Article 39(b) to prevent arbitrary classification of private property as ‘community resources’, minimising overreach.
- Enhanced Investment Climate: Reinforced property protections build investor confidence, making ownership more predictable and stable.
- Targeted Redistribution for Social Equity: Article 39(b) is now restricted to policies with direct public benefits, promoting fairness and reinforcing a secure environment for high-value assets.
- Sectoral Boost for Economic Growth: By securing property rights, the ruling supports real estate and industrial growth, positively impacting the economy.
-
- Empowering Judicial Oversight: Courts should be empowered to rigorously assess state actions regarding property, ensuring acquisitions meet standards of fairness, proportionality, and necessity.
- Refined Legislative and Judicial Scrutiny: Future laws invoking Article 39(b) must justify property acquisitions as essential for public welfare, with stricter scrutiny by courts.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – IC– FRs} Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court Verdict on Uttar Pradesh Madarsa Education Act, 2004:
- SC deemed the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004 a violation of secularism.
- It struck down Madrasas’ authority to confer higher degrees like Fazil and Kamil due to conflicts with the UGC Act.
- It allowed religious education but prohibited compulsory religious instruction.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- SC upheld the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004, reversing an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed it a violation of secularism.
- It established the UP Board of Madarsa Education, primarily composed of Muslim community members, to standardise curriculum, conduct examinations, and confer certificates from Class 10 (Maulvi) to Master’s level (Fazil).
- The Act combines secular subjects with Islamic studies to provide a structured academic framework.
- Madarsas are primarily funded by state governments, and initiatives like the 2009 Scheme for Providing Quality Education in Madrasas (SPQEM) aim to integrate modern education.
-
- Partial Upholding of the Act: The SC upheld state regulation of madrasa education but struck down madrasas’ authority to confer higher degrees like Fazil and Kamil due to conflicts with the UGC Act.
- Balancing Minority Rights & Educational Standards: The Court emphasised the need to balance minority rights with the need for secular education standards.
- Article 28(3) Protection: Students in minority institutions are protected from compulsory religious instruction, ensuring secular education alongside religious learning.
- Secularism & Constitutional Validity: Secularism must coexist with religious autonomy, and only direct constitutional violations can invalidate an Act.
- Religious Institutions’ Autonomy: Under Article 30, madrasas can maintain their identity while complying with state-mandated secular standards.
- Religious Education: Allowed religious education but prohibited compulsory religious instruction.
- Balanced Regulation: State regulation can coexist with religious autonomy, ensuring a balance between secular principles and religious identity.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- SC reversed an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004 a violation of secularism. SC upheld the act.
- Key Implications of the Supreme Court Verdict:
- Impact on UP Madrasas: The ruling mandates integrating secular education within UP Madrasas while preserving their religious identity, setting a model for similar institutions.
- Secular Standards Compliance: Madrasas are now required to uphold secular educational standards in alignment with Article 21A.
- Preservation of Religious Identity: The verdict upholds the balance, allowing madrasas to continue religious teachings within a secular framework.
- Broader Influence on Religious Education: The decision may affect other religious institutions, including gurukuls and convent schools, encouraging re-evaluating the religious-secular educational balance.
- Precedent for Secular-Religious Balance: SC emphasized the importance of secular standards in religious institutions, creating a benchmark for cultural autonomy alongside national education norms.
-
-
Allahabad High Court’s Perspective
- Violation of Secularism: The HC ruled that mandatory religious studies in madrasas undermined the state’s duty to provide neutral education, leading to religious-based educational discrimination.
- Right to Education (Article 21A): The Court argued that madrasas lacked quality secular education, violating the compulsory education mandate under Article 21A.
- Conflict with UGC Act: The HC found that madrasas conferring higher degrees, like Fazil and Kamil, conflicted with the UGC Act, which reserves degree-awarding powers for recognised universities.
- NCPCR’s Standpoint: Raised concerns about madrasas being unsuitable for proper education, highlighting issues like curriculum quality, teacher eligibility, and opaque funding.
-
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- SC upheld the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004, reversing an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed it a violation of secularism.
- It established the UP Board of Madarsa Education, primarily composed of Muslim community members, to standardise curriculum, conduct examinations, and confer certificates from Class 10 (Maulvi) to Master’s level (Fazil).
- The Act combines secular subjects with Islamic studies to provide a structured academic framework.
- Madarsas are primarily funded by state governments, and initiatives like the 2009 Scheme for Providing Quality Education in Madrasas (SPQEM) aim to integrate modern education.
-
- Partial Upholding of the Act: The SC upheld state regulation of madrasa education but struck down madrasas’ authority to confer higher degrees like Fazil and Kamil due to conflicts with the UGC Act.
- Balancing Minority Rights & Educational Standards: The Court emphasised the need to balance minority rights with the need for secular education standards.
- Article 28(3) Protection: Students in minority institutions are protected from compulsory religious instruction, ensuring secular education alongside religious learning.
- Secularism & Constitutional Validity: Secularism must coexist with religious autonomy, and only direct constitutional violations can invalidate an Act.
- Religious Institutions’ Autonomy: Under Article 30, madrasas can maintain their identity while complying with state-mandated secular standards.
- Religious Education: Allowed religious education but prohibited compulsory religious instruction.
- Balanced Regulation: State regulation can coexist with religious autonomy, ensuring a balance between secular principles and religious identity.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- SC reversed an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004 a violation of secularism. SC upheld the act.
- Key Implications of the Supreme Court Verdict:
- Impact on UP Madrasas: The ruling mandates integrating secular education within UP Madrasas while preserving their religious identity, setting a model for similar institutions.
- Secular Standards Compliance: Madrasas are now required to uphold secular educational standards in alignment with Article 21A.
- Preservation of Religious Identity: The verdict upholds the balance, allowing madrasas to continue religious teachings within a secular framework.
- Broader Influence on Religious Education: The decision may affect other religious institutions, including gurukuls and convent schools, encouraging re-evaluating the religious-secular educational balance.
- Precedent for Secular-Religious Balance: SC emphasized the importance of secular standards in religious institutions, creating a benchmark for cultural autonomy alongside national education norms.
-
-
Allahabad High Court’s Perspective
- Violation of Secularism: The HC ruled that mandatory religious studies in madrasas undermined the state’s duty to provide neutral education, leading to religious-based educational discrimination.
- Right to Education (Article 21A): The Court argued that madrasas lacked quality secular education, violating the compulsory education mandate under Article 21A.
- Conflict with UGC Act: The HC found that madrasas conferring higher degrees, like Fazil and Kamil, conflicted with the UGC Act, which reserves degree-awarding powers for recognised universities.
- NCPCR’s Standpoint: Raised concerns about madrasas being unsuitable for proper education, highlighting issues like curriculum quality, teacher eligibility, and opaque funding.
-
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- SC upheld the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004, reversing an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed it a violation of secularism.
- It established the UP Board of Madarsa Education, primarily composed of Muslim community members, to standardise curriculum, conduct examinations, and confer certificates from Class 10 (Maulvi) to Master’s level (Fazil).
- The Act combines secular subjects with Islamic studies to provide a structured academic framework.
- Madarsas are primarily funded by state governments, and initiatives like the 2009 Scheme for Providing Quality Education in Madrasas (SPQEM) aim to integrate modern education.
-
- Partial Upholding of the Act: The SC upheld state regulation of madrasa education but struck down madrasas’ authority to confer higher degrees like Fazil and Kamil due to conflicts with the UGC Act.
- Balancing Minority Rights & Educational Standards: The Court emphasised the need to balance minority rights with the need for secular education standards.
- Article 28(3) Protection: Students in minority institutions are protected from compulsory religious instruction, ensuring secular education alongside religious learning.
- Secularism & Constitutional Validity: Secularism must coexist with religious autonomy, and only direct constitutional violations can invalidate an Act.
- Religious Institutions’ Autonomy: Under Article 30, madrasas can maintain their identity while complying with state-mandated secular standards.
- Religious Education: Allowed religious education but prohibited compulsory religious instruction.
- Balanced Regulation: State regulation can coexist with religious autonomy, ensuring a balance between secular principles and religious identity.
Statements 1 is incorrect
- SC reversed an Allahabad High Court decision that deemed the Uttar Pradesh Board of Madarsa Education Act, 2004 a violation of secularism. SC upheld the act.
- Key Implications of the Supreme Court Verdict:
- Impact on UP Madrasas: The ruling mandates integrating secular education within UP Madrasas while preserving their religious identity, setting a model for similar institutions.
- Secular Standards Compliance: Madrasas are now required to uphold secular educational standards in alignment with Article 21A.
- Preservation of Religious Identity: The verdict upholds the balance, allowing madrasas to continue religious teachings within a secular framework.
- Broader Influence on Religious Education: The decision may affect other religious institutions, including gurukuls and convent schools, encouraging re-evaluating the religious-secular educational balance.
- Precedent for Secular-Religious Balance: SC emphasized the importance of secular standards in religious institutions, creating a benchmark for cultural autonomy alongside national education norms.
-
-
Allahabad High Court’s Perspective
- Violation of Secularism: The HC ruled that mandatory religious studies in madrasas undermined the state’s duty to provide neutral education, leading to religious-based educational discrimination.
- Right to Education (Article 21A): The Court argued that madrasas lacked quality secular education, violating the compulsory education mandate under Article 21A.
- Conflict with UGC Act: The HC found that madrasas conferring higher degrees, like Fazil and Kamil, conflicted with the UGC Act, which reserves degree-awarding powers for recognised universities.
- NCPCR’s Standpoint: Raised concerns about madrasas being unsuitable for proper education, highlighting issues like curriculum quality, teacher eligibility, and opaque funding.
-
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Agri – Food Security} Which of the following organisations releases the Hunger Hotspots report in collaboration with UN-World Food Programme?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A report by the FAO and the UN-WFP, “Hunger Hotspots: FAO–WFP Early Warnings on Acute Food Insecurity”, reveals a grim projection for food insecurity across 22 countries and regions.
- Sudan, Palestine, South Sudan, Haiti, and Mali are on the highest alert for acute food insecurity.
- New Additions to Hunger Hotspots List:
- Kenya, Lesotho, Namibia, and Niger have been added to the list of hunger hotspots.
- Burkina Faso, Ethiopia, Malawi, Somalia, Zambia, and Zimbabwe remain on the list.
- Economic and Political Turmoil: Myanmar faces exacerbated economic turmoil due to conflict. Haiti experiences rising violence, forcing displaced communities back into hunger.
- Violence in Sahel region: Chad faces conflict and insecurity worsened by a refugee influx from Sudan. Northern Nigeria is dealing with a worsening security situation.
- Weather and Climate Variability: La Niña will likely increase flood risks in Southern African nations, including Malawi, Mozambique, and Zambia. Potential drought in Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and Somalia.
- Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe jointly releases the Global Hunger Index.
Answer: (c) FAO; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A report by the FAO and the UN-WFP, “Hunger Hotspots: FAO–WFP Early Warnings on Acute Food Insecurity”, reveals a grim projection for food insecurity across 22 countries and regions.
- Sudan, Palestine, South Sudan, Haiti, and Mali are on the highest alert for acute food insecurity.
- New Additions to Hunger Hotspots List:
- Kenya, Lesotho, Namibia, and Niger have been added to the list of hunger hotspots.
- Burkina Faso, Ethiopia, Malawi, Somalia, Zambia, and Zimbabwe remain on the list.
- Economic and Political Turmoil: Myanmar faces exacerbated economic turmoil due to conflict. Haiti experiences rising violence, forcing displaced communities back into hunger.
- Violence in Sahel region: Chad faces conflict and insecurity worsened by a refugee influx from Sudan. Northern Nigeria is dealing with a worsening security situation.
- Weather and Climate Variability: La Niña will likely increase flood risks in Southern African nations, including Malawi, Mozambique, and Zambia. Potential drought in Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and Somalia.
- Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe jointly releases the Global Hunger Index.
Answer: (c) FAO; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- A report by the FAO and the UN-WFP, “Hunger Hotspots: FAO–WFP Early Warnings on Acute Food Insecurity”, reveals a grim projection for food insecurity across 22 countries and regions.
- Sudan, Palestine, South Sudan, Haiti, and Mali are on the highest alert for acute food insecurity.
- New Additions to Hunger Hotspots List:
- Kenya, Lesotho, Namibia, and Niger have been added to the list of hunger hotspots.
- Burkina Faso, Ethiopia, Malawi, Somalia, Zambia, and Zimbabwe remain on the list.
- Economic and Political Turmoil: Myanmar faces exacerbated economic turmoil due to conflict. Haiti experiences rising violence, forcing displaced communities back into hunger.
- Violence in Sahel region: Chad faces conflict and insecurity worsened by a refugee influx from Sudan. Northern Nigeria is dealing with a worsening security situation.
- Weather and Climate Variability: La Niña will likely increase flood risks in Southern African nations, including Malawi, Mozambique, and Zambia. Potential drought in Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and Somalia.
- Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe jointly releases the Global Hunger Index.
Answer: (c) FAO; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements:
- Statement-I: India’s first analogue space mission, aimed at simulating life in an interplanetary habitat, is being conducted at Drass in Jammu and Kashmir.
- Statement-II: The mission site was chosen because it closely resembles the Martian and Lunar surface, providing a natural laboratory for testing habitat sustainability and life support systems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
- India’s first Mars and Moon analogue mission is being conducted at Leh in Ladakh.
- Objective: To simulate life in an interplanetary habitat. For the next 21 days, an analogue astronaut will reside within the habitat. It is part of ISRO’s Gaganyaan program.
- Organisations involved: ISRO, AAKA Space Studio, University of Ladakh, IIT Bombay, and Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council.
- The mission site was chosen as it closely resembles Martian and lunar surfaces, offering a natural laboratory for testing habitat sustainability, life support systems, and the human experience of isolation.
- The Diurnal shifts from 15°C to -10°C, which simulate the thermal challenges of extraterrestrial environments, enabling testing of the habitat’s thermal insulation.
- Ladakh’s oxygen levels are only 40% of sea level, allowing researchers to test life support systems for low-pressure conditions similar to Mars.
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
- India’s first Mars and Moon analogue mission is being conducted at Leh in Ladakh.
- Objective: To simulate life in an interplanetary habitat. For the next 21 days, an analogue astronaut will reside within the habitat. It is part of ISRO’s Gaganyaan program.
- Organisations involved: ISRO, AAKA Space Studio, University of Ladakh, IIT Bombay, and Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council.
- The mission site was chosen as it closely resembles Martian and lunar surfaces, offering a natural laboratory for testing habitat sustainability, life support systems, and the human experience of isolation.
- The Diurnal shifts from 15°C to -10°C, which simulate the thermal challenges of extraterrestrial environments, enabling testing of the habitat’s thermal insulation.
- Ladakh’s oxygen levels are only 40% of sea level, allowing researchers to test life support systems for low-pressure conditions similar to Mars.
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
- India’s first Mars and Moon analogue mission is being conducted at Leh in Ladakh.
- Objective: To simulate life in an interplanetary habitat. For the next 21 days, an analogue astronaut will reside within the habitat. It is part of ISRO’s Gaganyaan program.
- Organisations involved: ISRO, AAKA Space Studio, University of Ladakh, IIT Bombay, and Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council.
- The mission site was chosen as it closely resembles Martian and lunar surfaces, offering a natural laboratory for testing habitat sustainability, life support systems, and the human experience of isolation.
- The Diurnal shifts from 15°C to -10°C, which simulate the thermal challenges of extraterrestrial environments, enabling testing of the habitat’s thermal insulation.
- Ladakh’s oxygen levels are only 40% of sea level, allowing researchers to test life support systems for low-pressure conditions similar to Mars.
Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Space} India will launch the EU’s Solar Observatory Satellite Proba-3. In this context, consider the following statements:
- It will be India’s first such launch for the EU.
- It will be launched with India’s GSLV Mk III rocket by ISRO.
- The Proba-3 mission will provide a continuous and clear view of the Sun’s corona through a 144-meter solar coronagraph.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- It will be India’s third such launch for the EU, with previous missions supporting the Proba-1 and Proba-2 satellites.
- World’s first mission for precise formation flying in space. It uses two satellites to act like a single big structure in space.
- It will be launched with India’s PSLV-XL rocket by ISRO.
Statement 3 is correct
- It will create a 144-meter solar coronagraph offering a continuous and clear view of the Sun’s corona (the Sun’s outer layer), which is typically hard to observe.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- It will be India’s third such launch for the EU, with previous missions supporting the Proba-1 and Proba-2 satellites.
- World’s first mission for precise formation flying in space. It uses two satellites to act like a single big structure in space.
- It will be launched with India’s PSLV-XL rocket by ISRO.
Statement 3 is correct
- It will create a 144-meter solar coronagraph offering a continuous and clear view of the Sun’s corona (the Sun’s outer layer), which is typically hard to observe.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- It will be India’s third such launch for the EU, with previous missions supporting the Proba-1 and Proba-2 satellites.
- World’s first mission for precise formation flying in space. It uses two satellites to act like a single big structure in space.
- It will be launched with India’s PSLV-XL rocket by ISRO.
Statement 3 is correct
- It will create a 144-meter solar coronagraph offering a continuous and clear view of the Sun’s corona (the Sun’s outer layer), which is typically hard to observe.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements about India’s updated National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) for 2024-2030:
- India aims to conserve 30% of its land and water areas.
- The updated NBSAP includes a target to reduce food waste by 75%.
- The plan includes measures to reduce the introduction and establishment of invasive species by 50%.
- It includes a target to halve the risk from nutrient loss and pesticides to reduce pollution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- India launched its updated NBSAP during COP 16 of the CBD in Colombia, aligning with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework focusing on 3 themes — reducing biodiversity threats, promoting sustainable resource use, and enhancing conservation tools.
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
- Updated National Biodiversity Targets:
- Conservation Areas: Target to conserve 30% of land and water areas.
- Sustainable Consumption: Promote sustainable consumption and reduce food waste by 50%.
- Ensure Equitable Benefit Sharing from genetic resources & traditional knowledge.
- Invasive Species Management: Aim to reduce introduction & establishment of invasive species by 50%.
- Pollution Reduction: Halve nutrient loss and pesticide risk to minimise environmental pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The actual target outlined in the updated NBSAP is to reduce food waste by 50%, not 75%.
- Evolution and Development of NBSAP:
- India’s biodiversity conservation tradition predates global movements like the Convention on Biological Diversity, with formal biodiversity management starting with the first NBSAP in 1999.
- The NBSAP evolved through the GEF Project (2000-2003), leading to the National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) in 2008, refined in 2014 to align with the Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
- India’s commitment to biodiversity was demonstrated through various reports and updates, including a 2019 overview addressing status, threats, strategies, and governance frameworks.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- India launched its updated NBSAP during COP 16 of the CBD in Colombia, aligning with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework focusing on 3 themes — reducing biodiversity threats, promoting sustainable resource use, and enhancing conservation tools.
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
- Updated National Biodiversity Targets:
- Conservation Areas: Target to conserve 30% of land and water areas.
- Sustainable Consumption: Promote sustainable consumption and reduce food waste by 50%.
- Ensure Equitable Benefit Sharing from genetic resources & traditional knowledge.
- Invasive Species Management: Aim to reduce introduction & establishment of invasive species by 50%.
- Pollution Reduction: Halve nutrient loss and pesticide risk to minimise environmental pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The actual target outlined in the updated NBSAP is to reduce food waste by 50%, not 75%.
- Evolution and Development of NBSAP:
- India’s biodiversity conservation tradition predates global movements like the Convention on Biological Diversity, with formal biodiversity management starting with the first NBSAP in 1999.
- The NBSAP evolved through the GEF Project (2000-2003), leading to the National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) in 2008, refined in 2014 to align with the Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
- India’s commitment to biodiversity was demonstrated through various reports and updates, including a 2019 overview addressing status, threats, strategies, and governance frameworks.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- India launched its updated NBSAP during COP 16 of the CBD in Colombia, aligning with the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework focusing on 3 themes — reducing biodiversity threats, promoting sustainable resource use, and enhancing conservation tools.
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
- Updated National Biodiversity Targets:
- Conservation Areas: Target to conserve 30% of land and water areas.
- Sustainable Consumption: Promote sustainable consumption and reduce food waste by 50%.
- Ensure Equitable Benefit Sharing from genetic resources & traditional knowledge.
- Invasive Species Management: Aim to reduce introduction & establishment of invasive species by 50%.
- Pollution Reduction: Halve nutrient loss and pesticide risk to minimise environmental pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The actual target outlined in the updated NBSAP is to reduce food waste by 50%, not 75%.
- Evolution and Development of NBSAP:
- India’s biodiversity conservation tradition predates global movements like the Convention on Biological Diversity, with formal biodiversity management starting with the first NBSAP in 1999.
- The NBSAP evolved through the GEF Project (2000-2003), leading to the National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) in 2008, refined in 2014 to align with the Aichi Biodiversity Targets.
- India’s commitment to biodiversity was demonstrated through various reports and updates, including a 2019 overview addressing status, threats, strategies, and governance frameworks.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
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