
May 28 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
- The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here.
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[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – May 28 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Geo – PG – Geomorphology} Consider the following statements about D” Layer:
- The D” layer is a homogenous and spherical zone located at the boundary between the Earth’s outer core and mantle.
- The D” layer is theorized to contain remnants from a colossal impact, potentially providing insights into Earth’s early formation.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The D” layer is known to be highly heterogeneous and not perfectly spherical.
- Its thickness varies significantly across different regions, and some areas may not have a D” layer at all.
- It is characterized by its patchiness and compositional variability, which means it cannot be described as homogenous or uniformly spherical.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Giant Impact hypothesis suggests that the D” layer may contain unique compositions left over from a massive collision between the proto-Earth and a Mars-sized object.
- This impact is believed to have created a global magma ocean, and the remnants of this event in the D” layer could offer crucial clues about the early formation and differentiation of the Earth.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The D” layer is known to be highly heterogeneous and not perfectly spherical.
- Its thickness varies significantly across different regions, and some areas may not have a D” layer at all.
- It is characterized by its patchiness and compositional variability, which means it cannot be described as homogenous or uniformly spherical.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Giant Impact hypothesis suggests that the D” layer may contain unique compositions left over from a massive collision between the proto-Earth and a Mars-sized object.
- This impact is believed to have created a global magma ocean, and the remnants of this event in the D” layer could offer crucial clues about the early formation and differentiation of the Earth.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The D” layer is known to be highly heterogeneous and not perfectly spherical.
- Its thickness varies significantly across different regions, and some areas may not have a D” layer at all.
- It is characterized by its patchiness and compositional variability, which means it cannot be described as homogenous or uniformly spherical.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Giant Impact hypothesis suggests that the D” layer may contain unique compositions left over from a massive collision between the proto-Earth and a Mars-sized object.
- This impact is believed to have created a global magma ocean, and the remnants of this event in the D” layer could offer crucial clues about the early formation and differentiation of the Earth.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {IR – Organisations} Consider the following statements about International Court of Justice (ICJ):
- The ICJ has the authority to revoke or modify any decision concerning provisional measures if the situation demands so.
- The ICJ has direct enforcement mechanisms to ensure compliance with its orders.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Article 76 of the Rules of Court (1978) grants the International Court of Justice (ICJ) the power to “revoke or modify” any decision concerning provisional measures if there is a significant change in the situation.
- This means that if the circumstances surrounding a case evolve in a substantial way, the Court has the jurisdiction to alter its previous rulings on provisional measures to address the new situation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The ICJ does not possess direct enforcement mechanisms to ensure compliance with its orders. Instead, the enforcement of ICJ decisions depends on the willingness of states to comply voluntarily or on actions taken by the UN Security Council.
- The Security Council can enforce ICJ rulings, but its actions are subject to the political dynamics within the Council, including the potential for vetoes by permanent members such as the United States, which has historically used its veto power to protect Israel.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Article 76 of the Rules of Court (1978) grants the International Court of Justice (ICJ) the power to “revoke or modify” any decision concerning provisional measures if there is a significant change in the situation.
- This means that if the circumstances surrounding a case evolve in a substantial way, the Court has the jurisdiction to alter its previous rulings on provisional measures to address the new situation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The ICJ does not possess direct enforcement mechanisms to ensure compliance with its orders. Instead, the enforcement of ICJ decisions depends on the willingness of states to comply voluntarily or on actions taken by the UN Security Council.
- The Security Council can enforce ICJ rulings, but its actions are subject to the political dynamics within the Council, including the potential for vetoes by permanent members such as the United States, which has historically used its veto power to protect Israel.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Article 76 of the Rules of Court (1978) grants the International Court of Justice (ICJ) the power to “revoke or modify” any decision concerning provisional measures if there is a significant change in the situation.
- This means that if the circumstances surrounding a case evolve in a substantial way, the Court has the jurisdiction to alter its previous rulings on provisional measures to address the new situation.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The ICJ does not possess direct enforcement mechanisms to ensure compliance with its orders. Instead, the enforcement of ICJ decisions depends on the willingness of states to comply voluntarily or on actions taken by the UN Security Council.
- The Security Council can enforce ICJ rulings, but its actions are subject to the political dynamics within the Council, including the potential for vetoes by permanent members such as the United States, which has historically used its veto power to protect Israel.
Answer: (a) 1 Only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Envi – Degradation} Consider the following statements regarding Thwaites Glacier in Antarctica:
- Thwaites Glacier, often referred to as the Doomsday Glacier, is located in East Antarctica.
- The glacier is melting rapidly due to the infiltration of salty and relatively warm ocean water beneath it.
- The melting of Thwaites Glacier contributes more than 10% to the global sea level rise each year.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier is located in West Antarctica.
Credit: India Today
- The geographical location is significant because the West Antarctic Ice Sheet (WAIS) is more susceptible to warming ocean currents and has different dynamics compared to the East Antarctic Ice Sheet.
- Thwaites Glacier’s position in West Antarctica makes it a critical area for studying ice loss and sea level rise.
Statement 2 is correct
- Thwaites Glacier is experiencing rapid melting primarily because warm and salty ocean water is infiltrating underneath the glacier.
- This process, termed “vigorous melting,” causes significant erosion at the glacier’s base, reducing its stability and accelerating ice loss.
- This mechanism is a crucial factor in understanding how oceanic changes impact glacial dynamics.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier’s melting contributes approximately 4% to the global sea level rise each year, not 10%.
- If Thwaites Glacier were to collapse completely, it could lead to a dramatic increase in global sea levels, potentially up to 10 feet (approximately 3 meters).
- This catastrophic scenario would pose a severe threat to coastal communities around the world, highlighting the critical importance of monitoring and understanding the glacier’s behavior.
- The retreat of Thwaites’ grounding line, where the glacier starts floating, exposes more ice to seawater, accelerating melting. Since the late 1990s, Thwaites has seen a 14 km retreat of its grounding line.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier is located in West Antarctica.
Credit: India Today
- The geographical location is significant because the West Antarctic Ice Sheet (WAIS) is more susceptible to warming ocean currents and has different dynamics compared to the East Antarctic Ice Sheet.
- Thwaites Glacier’s position in West Antarctica makes it a critical area for studying ice loss and sea level rise.
Statement 2 is correct
- Thwaites Glacier is experiencing rapid melting primarily because warm and salty ocean water is infiltrating underneath the glacier.
- This process, termed “vigorous melting,” causes significant erosion at the glacier’s base, reducing its stability and accelerating ice loss.
- This mechanism is a crucial factor in understanding how oceanic changes impact glacial dynamics.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier’s melting contributes approximately 4% to the global sea level rise each year, not 10%.
- If Thwaites Glacier were to collapse completely, it could lead to a dramatic increase in global sea levels, potentially up to 10 feet (approximately 3 meters).
- This catastrophic scenario would pose a severe threat to coastal communities around the world, highlighting the critical importance of monitoring and understanding the glacier’s behavior.
- The retreat of Thwaites’ grounding line, where the glacier starts floating, exposes more ice to seawater, accelerating melting. Since the late 1990s, Thwaites has seen a 14 km retreat of its grounding line.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier is located in West Antarctica.
Credit: India Today
- The geographical location is significant because the West Antarctic Ice Sheet (WAIS) is more susceptible to warming ocean currents and has different dynamics compared to the East Antarctic Ice Sheet.
- Thwaites Glacier’s position in West Antarctica makes it a critical area for studying ice loss and sea level rise.
Statement 2 is correct
- Thwaites Glacier is experiencing rapid melting primarily because warm and salty ocean water is infiltrating underneath the glacier.
- This process, termed “vigorous melting,” causes significant erosion at the glacier’s base, reducing its stability and accelerating ice loss.
- This mechanism is a crucial factor in understanding how oceanic changes impact glacial dynamics.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Thwaites Glacier’s melting contributes approximately 4% to the global sea level rise each year, not 10%.
- If Thwaites Glacier were to collapse completely, it could lead to a dramatic increase in global sea levels, potentially up to 10 feet (approximately 3 meters).
- This catastrophic scenario would pose a severe threat to coastal communities around the world, highlighting the critical importance of monitoring and understanding the glacier’s behavior.
- The retreat of Thwaites’ grounding line, where the glacier starts floating, exposes more ice to seawater, accelerating melting. Since the late 1990s, Thwaites has seen a 14 km retreat of its grounding line.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about Proboscis monkeys:
- Proboscis monkeys are endemic to the island of Borneo and are one of the largest monkey species in Asia.
- Adult males of Proboscis monkeys are known for their short, upturned noses, which are similar in size and shape to those of females and juveniles.
- Proboscis monkey is listed as Vulnerable under IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Proboscis monkeys (Nasalis larvatus) are native to Borneo, which is the only place where they naturally occur.
- They are among the largest monkey species in Asia, with males typically being larger than females.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Adult male Proboscis monkeys are known for their large, pendant, tongue-shaped noses, which are significantly different from the shorter, upturned noses of females and juveniles.
- The male Proboscis monkey’s distinctive nose is not only a visual marker but also a functional trait for vocal communication.
- Males use their large noses to amplify sounds, which can deter rivals and attract females. This sexual dimorphism is also evident in body size, with males being larger and heavier than females.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Habitat and Conservation: Proboscis monkeys inhabit coastal mangroves, peat swamps, and riverine forests.
- They are listed as Endangered (EN) by the IUCN and are included in Appendix I of CITES, highlighting their vulnerable status and the need for protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Proboscis monkeys (Nasalis larvatus) are native to Borneo, which is the only place where they naturally occur.
- They are among the largest monkey species in Asia, with males typically being larger than females.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Adult male Proboscis monkeys are known for their large, pendant, tongue-shaped noses, which are significantly different from the shorter, upturned noses of females and juveniles.
- The male Proboscis monkey’s distinctive nose is not only a visual marker but also a functional trait for vocal communication.
- Males use their large noses to amplify sounds, which can deter rivals and attract females. This sexual dimorphism is also evident in body size, with males being larger and heavier than females.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Habitat and Conservation: Proboscis monkeys inhabit coastal mangroves, peat swamps, and riverine forests.
- They are listed as Endangered (EN) by the IUCN and are included in Appendix I of CITES, highlighting their vulnerable status and the need for protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Proboscis monkeys (Nasalis larvatus) are native to Borneo, which is the only place where they naturally occur.
- They are among the largest monkey species in Asia, with males typically being larger than females.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Adult male Proboscis monkeys are known for their large, pendant, tongue-shaped noses, which are significantly different from the shorter, upturned noses of females and juveniles.
- The male Proboscis monkey’s distinctive nose is not only a visual marker but also a functional trait for vocal communication.
- Males use their large noses to amplify sounds, which can deter rivals and attract females. This sexual dimorphism is also evident in body size, with males being larger and heavier than females.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Habitat and Conservation: Proboscis monkeys inhabit coastal mangroves, peat swamps, and riverine forests.
- They are listed as Endangered (EN) by the IUCN and are included in Appendix I of CITES, highlighting their vulnerable status and the need for protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – IE – Fisheries} Consider the following statements regarding the Mesopelagic Zone:
- This zone experiences the highest temperature stability compared to other ocean zones.
- Bioluminescence is common in this zone due to the lack of light.
- Lantern fishes, which are abundant in the Mesopelagic zone, are extensively used for direct human consumption due to their high protein and lipid content.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone extends from 200 to 1,000 metres below sea level and is commonly referred to as the twilight zone due to the faint sunlight that reaches these depths.
- The Mesopelagic zone is characterized by significant temperature changes, particularly due to the presence of the thermocline, where temperature decreases rapidly with depth.
- It does not have the highest temperature stability.
Statement 2 is correct
- Due to the limited light in the Mesopelagic zone, many organisms have evolved bioluminescence. This adaptation helps them in various ways, such as attracting prey, communicating, and deterring predators.
- The ability to produce light is a critical survival strategy in this dark environment.
- Many species in this zone produce light through biochemical reactions.
- This ability helps organisms navigate the dark waters, find food, avoid predators, and communicate. For instance, the lantern fish uses bioluminescence to camouflage itself from predators below.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone is a rich source of biomass.
- Small fishes like lantern fishes represent an untapped resource with high protein and lipid content. However, they are mainly used for fishmeal and fertilizers rather than direct human consumption, due to both harvesting difficulties and the need for preservation techniques that can handle their high lipid content.
- Conservation and Policy: The Meenakumari Committee report addresses policies and guidelines for sustainable deep-sea fishing. Understanding and managing resources in zones like the Mesopelagic is crucial for sustainable fisheries and ecosystem health.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone extends from 200 to 1,000 metres below sea level and is commonly referred to as the twilight zone due to the faint sunlight that reaches these depths.
- The Mesopelagic zone is characterized by significant temperature changes, particularly due to the presence of the thermocline, where temperature decreases rapidly with depth.
- It does not have the highest temperature stability.
Statement 2 is correct
- Due to the limited light in the Mesopelagic zone, many organisms have evolved bioluminescence. This adaptation helps them in various ways, such as attracting prey, communicating, and deterring predators.
- The ability to produce light is a critical survival strategy in this dark environment.
- Many species in this zone produce light through biochemical reactions.
- This ability helps organisms navigate the dark waters, find food, avoid predators, and communicate. For instance, the lantern fish uses bioluminescence to camouflage itself from predators below.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone is a rich source of biomass.
- Small fishes like lantern fishes represent an untapped resource with high protein and lipid content. However, they are mainly used for fishmeal and fertilizers rather than direct human consumption, due to both harvesting difficulties and the need for preservation techniques that can handle their high lipid content.
- Conservation and Policy: The Meenakumari Committee report addresses policies and guidelines for sustainable deep-sea fishing. Understanding and managing resources in zones like the Mesopelagic is crucial for sustainable fisheries and ecosystem health.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone extends from 200 to 1,000 metres below sea level and is commonly referred to as the twilight zone due to the faint sunlight that reaches these depths.
- The Mesopelagic zone is characterized by significant temperature changes, particularly due to the presence of the thermocline, where temperature decreases rapidly with depth.
- It does not have the highest temperature stability.
Statement 2 is correct
- Due to the limited light in the Mesopelagic zone, many organisms have evolved bioluminescence. This adaptation helps them in various ways, such as attracting prey, communicating, and deterring predators.
- The ability to produce light is a critical survival strategy in this dark environment.
- Many species in this zone produce light through biochemical reactions.
- This ability helps organisms navigate the dark waters, find food, avoid predators, and communicate. For instance, the lantern fish uses bioluminescence to camouflage itself from predators below.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Mesopelagic zone is a rich source of biomass.
- Small fishes like lantern fishes represent an untapped resource with high protein and lipid content. However, they are mainly used for fishmeal and fertilizers rather than direct human consumption, due to both harvesting difficulties and the need for preservation techniques that can handle their high lipid content.
- Conservation and Policy: The Meenakumari Committee report addresses policies and guidelines for sustainable deep-sea fishing. Understanding and managing resources in zones like the Mesopelagic is crucial for sustainable fisheries and ecosystem health.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements about Zero Debris Charter:
- The Zero Debris Charter aims to achieve debris-neutrality in space by 2030.
- The Charter is a legally binding agreement signed by twelve nations and the European Space Agency (ESA).
- India is one of the signatories of the Zero Debris Charter.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an initiative of the European Space Agency (ESA) unveiled at the ESA Space Summit in Seville meeting in November 2023.
- The Charter comes after ESA Member States encouraged the Agency to implement “a Zero Debris approach for its missions and to encourage partners and other actors to pursue similar paths”.
- It is the first initiative of its kind to bring together the largest array and variety of space actors around the world with the joint goal of creating no more debris by 2030 and making possible the long-term sustainability of space activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The charter is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030.
- The charter sets out a number of targets, including that a mission’s probability of generating space debris should remain below 1 in 1,000 per object.
- It also sets a target of 99% success for post-mission disposal, including through external means when necessary.
- It encourages transparent information sharing and space traffic coordination.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India is not listed among the signatories of the Zero Debris Charter.
- The signatories include Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Germany, Lithuania, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Sweden, and the United Kingdom, along with ESA.
- India’s Efforts:
- Network for Space Objects Tracking and Analysis (NETRA Project): Tracks space debris within 1,500 km with an optical telescope.
- Multi Object Tracking Radar (MOTR): Developed by Satish Dhawan Space Centre to track 10 objects simultaneously.
- Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee: ISRO is a part of this committee to reduce man-made and natural space debris by identifying mitigation options.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an initiative of the European Space Agency (ESA) unveiled at the ESA Space Summit in Seville meeting in November 2023.
- The Charter comes after ESA Member States encouraged the Agency to implement “a Zero Debris approach for its missions and to encourage partners and other actors to pursue similar paths”.
- It is the first initiative of its kind to bring together the largest array and variety of space actors around the world with the joint goal of creating no more debris by 2030 and making possible the long-term sustainability of space activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The charter is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030.
- The charter sets out a number of targets, including that a mission’s probability of generating space debris should remain below 1 in 1,000 per object.
- It also sets a target of 99% success for post-mission disposal, including through external means when necessary.
- It encourages transparent information sharing and space traffic coordination.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India is not listed among the signatories of the Zero Debris Charter.
- The signatories include Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Germany, Lithuania, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Sweden, and the United Kingdom, along with ESA.
- India’s Efforts:
- Network for Space Objects Tracking and Analysis (NETRA Project): Tracks space debris within 1,500 km with an optical telescope.
- Multi Object Tracking Radar (MOTR): Developed by Satish Dhawan Space Centre to track 10 objects simultaneously.
- Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee: ISRO is a part of this committee to reduce man-made and natural space debris by identifying mitigation options.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an initiative of the European Space Agency (ESA) unveiled at the ESA Space Summit in Seville meeting in November 2023.
- The Charter comes after ESA Member States encouraged the Agency to implement “a Zero Debris approach for its missions and to encourage partners and other actors to pursue similar paths”.
- It is the first initiative of its kind to bring together the largest array and variety of space actors around the world with the joint goal of creating no more debris by 2030 and making possible the long-term sustainability of space activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- The charter is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030.
- The charter sets out a number of targets, including that a mission’s probability of generating space debris should remain below 1 in 1,000 per object.
- It also sets a target of 99% success for post-mission disposal, including through external means when necessary.
- It encourages transparent information sharing and space traffic coordination.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India is not listed among the signatories of the Zero Debris Charter.
- The signatories include Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Germany, Lithuania, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Sweden, and the United Kingdom, along with ESA.
- India’s Efforts:
- Network for Space Objects Tracking and Analysis (NETRA Project): Tracks space debris within 1,500 km with an optical telescope.
- Multi Object Tracking Radar (MOTR): Developed by Satish Dhawan Space Centre to track 10 objects simultaneously.
- Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee: ISRO is a part of this committee to reduce man-made and natural space debris by identifying mitigation options.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims In News} Silanthi River, sometimes seen in the news recently, is a tributary of?
Correct
Explanation
- The Silanthi River is situated in the Idukki district of Kerala, India.
- A check dam is being constructed across the Silanthi River with the aim of providing drinking water to the Vattavadi gram panchayat.
- Check dams are small, temporary dams built across a river or a drainage ditch to reduce flow velocity and control soil erosion.
- The construction of the check dam on the Silanthi River has sparked protests from Tamil Nadu farmers and opposition parties.
- They argue that the project would adversely affect agriculture in Tirupur and Karur districts, leading to significant opposition and debate over its implementation.
- Silanthi River is identified as a tributary of the Amaravathi River. Tributaries play a crucial role in the hydrological cycle, contributing water to larger river systems.
- The Amaravathi River is the longest tributary of the Cauvery River.
- As a river located in the Western Ghats region of Kerala, the Silanthi River likely supports diverse aquatic ecosystems and contributes to the overall ecological balance of the area.
- The Western Ghats are recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot, harboring numerous species of plants and animals.
Answer: (a) Amaravathi River; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Silanthi River is situated in the Idukki district of Kerala, India.
- A check dam is being constructed across the Silanthi River with the aim of providing drinking water to the Vattavadi gram panchayat.
- Check dams are small, temporary dams built across a river or a drainage ditch to reduce flow velocity and control soil erosion.
- The construction of the check dam on the Silanthi River has sparked protests from Tamil Nadu farmers and opposition parties.
- They argue that the project would adversely affect agriculture in Tirupur and Karur districts, leading to significant opposition and debate over its implementation.
- Silanthi River is identified as a tributary of the Amaravathi River. Tributaries play a crucial role in the hydrological cycle, contributing water to larger river systems.
- The Amaravathi River is the longest tributary of the Cauvery River.
- As a river located in the Western Ghats region of Kerala, the Silanthi River likely supports diverse aquatic ecosystems and contributes to the overall ecological balance of the area.
- The Western Ghats are recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot, harboring numerous species of plants and animals.
Answer: (a) Amaravathi River; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Silanthi River is situated in the Idukki district of Kerala, India.
- A check dam is being constructed across the Silanthi River with the aim of providing drinking water to the Vattavadi gram panchayat.
- Check dams are small, temporary dams built across a river or a drainage ditch to reduce flow velocity and control soil erosion.
- The construction of the check dam on the Silanthi River has sparked protests from Tamil Nadu farmers and opposition parties.
- They argue that the project would adversely affect agriculture in Tirupur and Karur districts, leading to significant opposition and debate over its implementation.
- Silanthi River is identified as a tributary of the Amaravathi River. Tributaries play a crucial role in the hydrological cycle, contributing water to larger river systems.
- The Amaravathi River is the longest tributary of the Cauvery River.
- As a river located in the Western Ghats region of Kerala, the Silanthi River likely supports diverse aquatic ecosystems and contributes to the overall ecological balance of the area.
- The Western Ghats are recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot, harboring numerous species of plants and animals.
Answer: (a) Amaravathi River; Difficulty Level: Medium
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