
May 25 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
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[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – May 25 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following statements about Personality Rights:
- Personality rights, including the right of publicity and the right to privacy, are explicitly protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
- The Copyright Act of 1957 provides moral rights exclusively to authors and performers, ensuring they are credited for their work and protecting against damage to their creations.
- Celebrities must register their names as trademarks to protect their personality rights from unauthorized commercial use.
- The Delhi High Court, in the case of Arun Jaitley vs Network Solutions Private Limited and Ors (2011), acknowledged that an individual’s popularity or fame on the internet is no different from their fame in reality.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted to include the right to privacy.
- However, personality rights, specifically the right of publicity and the right to privacy as it pertains to a public persona, are not explicitly mentioned in Article 21.
- Instead, these rights are derived from broader interpretations of privacy and property rights under various legal principles and judicial decisions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Copyright Act of 1957 grants moral rights to authors and performers, which include the right to attribution (the right to be credited as the author of the work) and the right to integrity (the right to object to derogatory treatment of the work that would harm the author’s honor or reputation).
- These rights are intended to protect the personal connection between the creator and their work.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- While celebrities often trademark aspects of their personality, such as their name, signature, or distinctive gestures, to protect against unauthorized commercial use, it is not mandatory for them to do so.
- Trademark registration is one method of protecting personality rights, but celebrities can also rely on other legal remedies such as passing off, injunctions, and the general principles of privacy and property law.
Statement 4 is correct
- In the Arun Jaitley case, the Delhi High Court recognized that an individual’s fame and popularity on the internet are equivalent to their fame in the physical world.
- The court acknowledged that an individual’s name, if it has gained a distinctive identity, holds significance both online and offline, thereby extending the protection of personality rights to the digital realm.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted to include the right to privacy.
- However, personality rights, specifically the right of publicity and the right to privacy as it pertains to a public persona, are not explicitly mentioned in Article 21.
- Instead, these rights are derived from broader interpretations of privacy and property rights under various legal principles and judicial decisions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Copyright Act of 1957 grants moral rights to authors and performers, which include the right to attribution (the right to be credited as the author of the work) and the right to integrity (the right to object to derogatory treatment of the work that would harm the author’s honor or reputation).
- These rights are intended to protect the personal connection between the creator and their work.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- While celebrities often trademark aspects of their personality, such as their name, signature, or distinctive gestures, to protect against unauthorized commercial use, it is not mandatory for them to do so.
- Trademark registration is one method of protecting personality rights, but celebrities can also rely on other legal remedies such as passing off, injunctions, and the general principles of privacy and property law.
Statement 4 is correct
- In the Arun Jaitley case, the Delhi High Court recognized that an individual’s fame and popularity on the internet are equivalent to their fame in the physical world.
- The court acknowledged that an individual’s name, if it has gained a distinctive identity, holds significance both online and offline, thereby extending the protection of personality rights to the digital realm.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted to include the right to privacy.
- However, personality rights, specifically the right of publicity and the right to privacy as it pertains to a public persona, are not explicitly mentioned in Article 21.
- Instead, these rights are derived from broader interpretations of privacy and property rights under various legal principles and judicial decisions.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Copyright Act of 1957 grants moral rights to authors and performers, which include the right to attribution (the right to be credited as the author of the work) and the right to integrity (the right to object to derogatory treatment of the work that would harm the author’s honor or reputation).
- These rights are intended to protect the personal connection between the creator and their work.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- While celebrities often trademark aspects of their personality, such as their name, signature, or distinctive gestures, to protect against unauthorized commercial use, it is not mandatory for them to do so.
- Trademark registration is one method of protecting personality rights, but celebrities can also rely on other legal remedies such as passing off, injunctions, and the general principles of privacy and property law.
Statement 4 is correct
- In the Arun Jaitley case, the Delhi High Court recognized that an individual’s fame and popularity on the internet are equivalent to their fame in the physical world.
- The court acknowledged that an individual’s name, if it has gained a distinctive identity, holds significance both online and offline, thereby extending the protection of personality rights to the digital realm.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements:
- Methane is the primary cause of landfill fires due to its highly flammable nature.
- Biocovers are made from waste materials and function to minimize methane emissions through microbial oxidation.
- Methanotrophic bacteria in the biocover require only methane (CH4) to effectively carry out the oxidation process.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Methane’s Properties: Methane (CH4) is a simple hydrocarbon that is colorless and odorless. It is highly flammable, which means it can easily ignite when it reaches a certain concentration in the presence of oxygen.
- Landfill Fires: In landfills, methane is produced during the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste. Because methane is flammable, its accumulation can lead to conditions where a small spark or heat can ignite the gas, causing a fire. Therefore, methane’s presence is indeed a primary cause of landfill fires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Composition of Biocovers: Biocovers are typically made from various types of waste materials, including compost, mechanically biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge, and yard waste. These materials are chosen because they are porous and support microbial activity.
- Function of Biocovers: The primary function of a biocover is to minimize methane emissions from landfills.
- This is achieved through microbial oxidation, where methanotrophic bacteria in the biocover layer convert methane into carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O), and biomass. By doing so, the biocover effectively reduces the amount of methane released into the atmosphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Microbial Oxidation Process: Methanotrophic bacteria, or methanotrophs, are specialized microorganisms that oxidize methane. However, these bacteria do not rely solely on methane for this process. They also require oxygen (O2) to carry out the oxidation.
- Oxygen’s Role: In the presence of oxygen, methanotrophs oxidize methane to produce CO2 and H2O. Without sufficient oxygen, the bacteria cannot efficiently perform this oxidation. Therefore, both methane and oxygen are essential for the microbial oxidation process in the biocover.
Credit: Semantic Scholar
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Methane’s Properties: Methane (CH4) is a simple hydrocarbon that is colorless and odorless. It is highly flammable, which means it can easily ignite when it reaches a certain concentration in the presence of oxygen.
- Landfill Fires: In landfills, methane is produced during the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste. Because methane is flammable, its accumulation can lead to conditions where a small spark or heat can ignite the gas, causing a fire. Therefore, methane’s presence is indeed a primary cause of landfill fires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Composition of Biocovers: Biocovers are typically made from various types of waste materials, including compost, mechanically biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge, and yard waste. These materials are chosen because they are porous and support microbial activity.
- Function of Biocovers: The primary function of a biocover is to minimize methane emissions from landfills.
- This is achieved through microbial oxidation, where methanotrophic bacteria in the biocover layer convert methane into carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O), and biomass. By doing so, the biocover effectively reduces the amount of methane released into the atmosphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Microbial Oxidation Process: Methanotrophic bacteria, or methanotrophs, are specialized microorganisms that oxidize methane. However, these bacteria do not rely solely on methane for this process. They also require oxygen (O2) to carry out the oxidation.
- Oxygen’s Role: In the presence of oxygen, methanotrophs oxidize methane to produce CO2 and H2O. Without sufficient oxygen, the bacteria cannot efficiently perform this oxidation. Therefore, both methane and oxygen are essential for the microbial oxidation process in the biocover.
Credit: Semantic Scholar
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Methane’s Properties: Methane (CH4) is a simple hydrocarbon that is colorless and odorless. It is highly flammable, which means it can easily ignite when it reaches a certain concentration in the presence of oxygen.
- Landfill Fires: In landfills, methane is produced during the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste. Because methane is flammable, its accumulation can lead to conditions where a small spark or heat can ignite the gas, causing a fire. Therefore, methane’s presence is indeed a primary cause of landfill fires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Composition of Biocovers: Biocovers are typically made from various types of waste materials, including compost, mechanically biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge, and yard waste. These materials are chosen because they are porous and support microbial activity.
- Function of Biocovers: The primary function of a biocover is to minimize methane emissions from landfills.
- This is achieved through microbial oxidation, where methanotrophic bacteria in the biocover layer convert methane into carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O), and biomass. By doing so, the biocover effectively reduces the amount of methane released into the atmosphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Microbial Oxidation Process: Methanotrophic bacteria, or methanotrophs, are specialized microorganisms that oxidize methane. However, these bacteria do not rely solely on methane for this process. They also require oxygen (O2) to carry out the oxidation.
- Oxygen’s Role: In the presence of oxygen, methanotrophs oxidize methane to produce CO2 and H2O. Without sufficient oxygen, the bacteria cannot efficiently perform this oxidation. Therefore, both methane and oxygen are essential for the microbial oxidation process in the biocover.
Credit: Semantic Scholar
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {S&T – Tech} Consider the following statements:
- Smart meters can communicate energy consumption data every 30 minutes to both the consumer’s smartphone and the distribution company.
- Smart meters use different algorithms than conventional meters, thus potentially affecting monthly tariffs even if consumption remains the same.
- Financial assistance under Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) is reserved for the installation of smart meters and not for the upgradation of distribution infrastructure.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Smart meters are designed to track energy consumption in real-time or at regular intervals, typically every 30 minutes.
- They communicate this data to the consumer’s smartphone and the distribution company, allowing for better energy management and timely updates.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Smart meters use the same algorithms as conventional meters for calculating energy consumption.
- Therefore, they do not affect the monthly tariff if the consumption pattern does not change.
- The primary difference lies in the ability of smart meters to communicate data and provide real-time insights.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RDSS provides financial assistance not only for the installation of prepaid smart consumer metering and system metering but also for the upgradation of distribution infrastructure.
- The scheme supports comprehensive improvements to ensure better power distribution and financial discipline.
- One of the main objectives of the RDSS is to reduce AT&C losses to 12-15% and to close the gap between the Average Cost of Supply (ACS) and the Average Revenue Realised (ARR) by the year 2024-25.
- This is part of broader efforts to improve the financial health and efficiency of the power distribution sector.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Smart meters are designed to track energy consumption in real-time or at regular intervals, typically every 30 minutes.
- They communicate this data to the consumer’s smartphone and the distribution company, allowing for better energy management and timely updates.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Smart meters use the same algorithms as conventional meters for calculating energy consumption.
- Therefore, they do not affect the monthly tariff if the consumption pattern does not change.
- The primary difference lies in the ability of smart meters to communicate data and provide real-time insights.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RDSS provides financial assistance not only for the installation of prepaid smart consumer metering and system metering but also for the upgradation of distribution infrastructure.
- The scheme supports comprehensive improvements to ensure better power distribution and financial discipline.
- One of the main objectives of the RDSS is to reduce AT&C losses to 12-15% and to close the gap between the Average Cost of Supply (ACS) and the Average Revenue Realised (ARR) by the year 2024-25.
- This is part of broader efforts to improve the financial health and efficiency of the power distribution sector.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Smart meters are designed to track energy consumption in real-time or at regular intervals, typically every 30 minutes.
- They communicate this data to the consumer’s smartphone and the distribution company, allowing for better energy management and timely updates.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Smart meters use the same algorithms as conventional meters for calculating energy consumption.
- Therefore, they do not affect the monthly tariff if the consumption pattern does not change.
- The primary difference lies in the ability of smart meters to communicate data and provide real-time insights.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The RDSS provides financial assistance not only for the installation of prepaid smart consumer metering and system metering but also for the upgradation of distribution infrastructure.
- The scheme supports comprehensive improvements to ensure better power distribution and financial discipline.
- One of the main objectives of the RDSS is to reduce AT&C losses to 12-15% and to close the gap between the Average Cost of Supply (ACS) and the Average Revenue Realised (ARR) by the year 2024-25.
- This is part of broader efforts to improve the financial health and efficiency of the power distribution sector.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – S&T – Tech} Consider the following statements:
- Cement production is a significant source of greenhouse gas emissions, accounting for 7.5% of human-made CO2.
- Calcination, combined with the burning of fossil fuels, is a major contributor to the carbon emissions from cement production.
- Recycled cement, also known as “electric cement,” can be reactivated by heating it using heat from steel recycling.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Cement is the most common construction material. It binds sand and aggregate in concrete.
- It is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions.
- If cement were a country, it would be the third largest emitter after China and the US. Cement production accounts for 7.5% of human-made CO2.
Statement 2 is correct
- The production of cement involves heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to high temperatures, a process that releases carbon dioxide.
- This process, called calcination, combined with the burning of fossil fuels for heat, is a major contributor to the carbon emissions from cement production.
Statement 3 is correct
- Scientists have discovered that used cement can be reactivated by heating it again, a process they refer to as creating “electric cement.”
- This reactivation process can utilize the waste heat from steel recycling, which aligns with the concept of recycling and energy efficiency.
- The innovation of “electric cement” holds the potential to decarbonize the cement-making process by reusing existing cement and utilizing waste heat from steel recycling.
- This dual benefit not only reduces the carbon footprint of cement production but also minimizes pollution associated with steel recycling.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Cement is the most common construction material. It binds sand and aggregate in concrete.
- It is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions.
- If cement were a country, it would be the third largest emitter after China and the US. Cement production accounts for 7.5% of human-made CO2.
Statement 2 is correct
- The production of cement involves heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to high temperatures, a process that releases carbon dioxide.
- This process, called calcination, combined with the burning of fossil fuels for heat, is a major contributor to the carbon emissions from cement production.
Statement 3 is correct
- Scientists have discovered that used cement can be reactivated by heating it again, a process they refer to as creating “electric cement.”
- This reactivation process can utilize the waste heat from steel recycling, which aligns with the concept of recycling and energy efficiency.
- The innovation of “electric cement” holds the potential to decarbonize the cement-making process by reusing existing cement and utilizing waste heat from steel recycling.
- This dual benefit not only reduces the carbon footprint of cement production but also minimizes pollution associated with steel recycling.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Cement is the most common construction material. It binds sand and aggregate in concrete.
- It is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions.
- If cement were a country, it would be the third largest emitter after China and the US. Cement production accounts for 7.5% of human-made CO2.
Statement 2 is correct
- The production of cement involves heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to high temperatures, a process that releases carbon dioxide.
- This process, called calcination, combined with the burning of fossil fuels for heat, is a major contributor to the carbon emissions from cement production.
Statement 3 is correct
- Scientists have discovered that used cement can be reactivated by heating it again, a process they refer to as creating “electric cement.”
- This reactivation process can utilize the waste heat from steel recycling, which aligns with the concept of recycling and energy efficiency.
- The innovation of “electric cement” holds the potential to decarbonize the cement-making process by reusing existing cement and utilizing waste heat from steel recycling.
- This dual benefit not only reduces the carbon footprint of cement production but also minimizes pollution associated with steel recycling.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – Envi – Species} Consider the following statements about the recently discovered Phtheirospermum lushaiorum:
- Phtheirospermum lushaiorum is a parasitic plant that attaches to the roots of its host because it lacks chlorophyll and rely entirely on its host for water, minerals, and food.
- These plants flower only from July to September and produce fruits from August to October.
- The Lushai tribe, after whom the plant is named, is known for their Cheraw Dance (Bamboo Dance) and primarily practices Jhum cultivation.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Phtheirospermum lushaiorum is a hemi-parasitic plant found in Phawngpui National Park, Mizoram.
- It attaches to the roots of its host and resembles a normal plant growing in the soil, which is a characteristic behavior of hemi-parasitic plants.
- Hemi-parasitic plants do have chlorophyll and are capable of photosynthesis, allowing them to produce their own food. They rely on their host primarily for water and minerals, not entirely for food.
- They form connections with the host using specialized structures called haustoria.
Statement 2 is correct
- Flowering Period: Phtheirospermum lushaiorum flowers specifically from July to September. This period aligns with the monsoon season in Mizoram, providing optimal conditions for flowering.
- Fruiting Period: The plant produces fruits from August to October, following its flowering period. The overlap in flowering and fruiting times is common in many plant species and is crucial for the plant’s reproductive cycle.
Statement 3 is correct
- Cultural Practices: The Lushai tribe, also known as the Mizos, is renowned for their traditional dance form known as the Cheraw Dance or Bamboo Dance. This dance involves intricate footwork between bamboo poles and is a significant part of their cultural heritage.
- Agricultural Practices: The tribe primarily practices Jhum cultivation, a traditional method of shifting agriculture. This practice involves clearing forest patches, burning the vegetation, and then growing crops on the cleared land. After a few years, they shift to a new patch, allowing the old one to regenerate.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Phtheirospermum lushaiorum is a hemi-parasitic plant found in Phawngpui National Park, Mizoram.
- It attaches to the roots of its host and resembles a normal plant growing in the soil, which is a characteristic behavior of hemi-parasitic plants.
- Hemi-parasitic plants do have chlorophyll and are capable of photosynthesis, allowing them to produce their own food. They rely on their host primarily for water and minerals, not entirely for food.
- They form connections with the host using specialized structures called haustoria.
Statement 2 is correct
- Flowering Period: Phtheirospermum lushaiorum flowers specifically from July to September. This period aligns with the monsoon season in Mizoram, providing optimal conditions for flowering.
- Fruiting Period: The plant produces fruits from August to October, following its flowering period. The overlap in flowering and fruiting times is common in many plant species and is crucial for the plant’s reproductive cycle.
Statement 3 is correct
- Cultural Practices: The Lushai tribe, also known as the Mizos, is renowned for their traditional dance form known as the Cheraw Dance or Bamboo Dance. This dance involves intricate footwork between bamboo poles and is a significant part of their cultural heritage.
- Agricultural Practices: The tribe primarily practices Jhum cultivation, a traditional method of shifting agriculture. This practice involves clearing forest patches, burning the vegetation, and then growing crops on the cleared land. After a few years, they shift to a new patch, allowing the old one to regenerate.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Phtheirospermum lushaiorum is a hemi-parasitic plant found in Phawngpui National Park, Mizoram.
- It attaches to the roots of its host and resembles a normal plant growing in the soil, which is a characteristic behavior of hemi-parasitic plants.
- Hemi-parasitic plants do have chlorophyll and are capable of photosynthesis, allowing them to produce their own food. They rely on their host primarily for water and minerals, not entirely for food.
- They form connections with the host using specialized structures called haustoria.
Statement 2 is correct
- Flowering Period: Phtheirospermum lushaiorum flowers specifically from July to September. This period aligns with the monsoon season in Mizoram, providing optimal conditions for flowering.
- Fruiting Period: The plant produces fruits from August to October, following its flowering period. The overlap in flowering and fruiting times is common in many plant species and is crucial for the plant’s reproductive cycle.
Statement 3 is correct
- Cultural Practices: The Lushai tribe, also known as the Mizos, is renowned for their traditional dance form known as the Cheraw Dance or Bamboo Dance. This dance involves intricate footwork between bamboo poles and is a significant part of their cultural heritage.
- Agricultural Practices: The tribe primarily practices Jhum cultivation, a traditional method of shifting agriculture. This practice involves clearing forest patches, burning the vegetation, and then growing crops on the cleared land. After a few years, they shift to a new patch, allowing the old one to regenerate.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – Sci – Bio – Diseases} Consider the following statements regarding rubella (German measles):
- Rubella is a contagious viral infection caused by the RuV virus, which primarily gets transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals.
- Rubella has been declared eliminated in the Americas (North and South), but it remains present in Africa and Southeast Asia.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Rubella, also known as German measles, is indeed a contagious viral infection caused by the rubella virus (RuV).
- The primary mode of transmission is through airborne droplets, which makes it easily spread among individuals, especially in crowded environments.
- While rubella can affect children and young adults, it is not typically dangerous for them; it usually causes only mild symptoms like a spotty, itchy red rash.
- The statement is incorrect because the most significant danger of rubella is for pregnant women, as it can lead to severe physical and mental impairments in infants (congenital rubella syndrome), as well as miscarriages and stillbirths.
Statement 2 is correct
- Rubella was declared eliminated in the Americas in 2015, which means that the region no longer had endemic transmission of the virus.
- However, rubella continues to be present in other parts of the world, particularly in Africa and Southeast Asia, where vaccination coverage may be lower.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Rubella, also known as German measles, is indeed a contagious viral infection caused by the rubella virus (RuV).
- The primary mode of transmission is through airborne droplets, which makes it easily spread among individuals, especially in crowded environments.
- While rubella can affect children and young adults, it is not typically dangerous for them; it usually causes only mild symptoms like a spotty, itchy red rash.
- The statement is incorrect because the most significant danger of rubella is for pregnant women, as it can lead to severe physical and mental impairments in infants (congenital rubella syndrome), as well as miscarriages and stillbirths.
Statement 2 is correct
- Rubella was declared eliminated in the Americas in 2015, which means that the region no longer had endemic transmission of the virus.
- However, rubella continues to be present in other parts of the world, particularly in Africa and Southeast Asia, where vaccination coverage may be lower.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Rubella, also known as German measles, is indeed a contagious viral infection caused by the rubella virus (RuV).
- The primary mode of transmission is through airborne droplets, which makes it easily spread among individuals, especially in crowded environments.
- While rubella can affect children and young adults, it is not typically dangerous for them; it usually causes only mild symptoms like a spotty, itchy red rash.
- The statement is incorrect because the most significant danger of rubella is for pregnant women, as it can lead to severe physical and mental impairments in infants (congenital rubella syndrome), as well as miscarriages and stillbirths.
Statement 2 is correct
- Rubella was declared eliminated in the Americas in 2015, which means that the region no longer had endemic transmission of the virus.
- However, rubella continues to be present in other parts of the world, particularly in Africa and Southeast Asia, where vaccination coverage may be lower.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Global Species Action Plan (GSAP) and the Species Conservation Knowledge, Information, Learning, Leverage and Sharing (SKILLS) platform, recently seen in the news, launched by which organisation?
Correct
Explanation
- The Global Species Action Plan (GSAP) and the associated SKILLS platform are initiatives managed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a global authority on environmental conservation.
- Role of IUCN: IUCN plays a crucial role in facilitating global collaboration and partnership in biodiversity conservation efforts.
- It brings together decision-makers, conservation practitioners, and experts to address pressing conservation challenges.
- GSAP and SKILLS Platform: The GSAP aims to support the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) and combat biodiversity loss.
- The SKILLS platform, launched by IUCN, provides real-time updates and resources for species conservation efforts worldwide.
- The development of the GSAP SKILLS platform has been principally supported by Ministry of Environment, Republic of Korea, with additional resources from the Tech4Nature Initiative launched by IUCN and Huawei in 2020.
Answer: (a) IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature); Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Global Species Action Plan (GSAP) and the associated SKILLS platform are initiatives managed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a global authority on environmental conservation.
- Role of IUCN: IUCN plays a crucial role in facilitating global collaboration and partnership in biodiversity conservation efforts.
- It brings together decision-makers, conservation practitioners, and experts to address pressing conservation challenges.
- GSAP and SKILLS Platform: The GSAP aims to support the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) and combat biodiversity loss.
- The SKILLS platform, launched by IUCN, provides real-time updates and resources for species conservation efforts worldwide.
- The development of the GSAP SKILLS platform has been principally supported by Ministry of Environment, Republic of Korea, with additional resources from the Tech4Nature Initiative launched by IUCN and Huawei in 2020.
Answer: (a) IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature); Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Global Species Action Plan (GSAP) and the associated SKILLS platform are initiatives managed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a global authority on environmental conservation.
- Role of IUCN: IUCN plays a crucial role in facilitating global collaboration and partnership in biodiversity conservation efforts.
- It brings together decision-makers, conservation practitioners, and experts to address pressing conservation challenges.
- GSAP and SKILLS Platform: The GSAP aims to support the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) and combat biodiversity loss.
- The SKILLS platform, launched by IUCN, provides real-time updates and resources for species conservation efforts worldwide.
- The development of the GSAP SKILLS platform has been principally supported by Ministry of Environment, Republic of Korea, with additional resources from the Tech4Nature Initiative launched by IUCN and Huawei in 2020.
Answer: (a) IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature); Difficulty Level: Medium
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