Exercise Shakti is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in India and France.
The joint exercise will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between armed forces personnel of the two countries.
This will also enhance the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
The aim of Exercise Shakti is to enhancejoint military capability of both sides to undertake multi-domain operations in a sub-conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
The joint exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain.
The objectives to be achieved from the joint training are “high degree” of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at tactical level and sharing of best practices.
The Indian contingent comprising 90 personnel is being represented primarily by a battalion of the Rajput Regiment, besides personnel from other arms and services.
Observers from the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force are also a part of the exercise.
The French contingent comprising 90 personnel will be represented mainly by personnel from the 13th Foreign Legion Half-Brigade.
Answer: (a) It is an annual joint military exercise held between India and France; Difficulty Level: Medium
Exercise Shakti is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in India and France.
The joint exercise will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between armed forces personnel of the two countries.
This will also enhance the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
The aim of Exercise Shakti is to enhancejoint military capability of both sides to undertake multi-domain operations in a sub-conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
The joint exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain.
The objectives to be achieved from the joint training are “high degree” of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at tactical level and sharing of best practices.
The Indian contingent comprising 90 personnel is being represented primarily by a battalion of the Rajput Regiment, besides personnel from other arms and services.
Observers from the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force are also a part of the exercise.
The French contingent comprising 90 personnel will be represented mainly by personnel from the 13th Foreign Legion Half-Brigade.
Answer: (a) It is an annual joint military exercise held between India and France; Difficulty Level: Medium
Exercise Shakti is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in India and France.
The joint exercise will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between armed forces personnel of the two countries.
This will also enhance the level of defence cooperation, further fostering bilateral relations between the two friendly nations.
The aim of Exercise Shakti is to enhancejoint military capability of both sides to undertake multi-domain operations in a sub-conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
The joint exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain.
The objectives to be achieved from the joint training are “high degree” of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at tactical level and sharing of best practices.
The Indian contingent comprising 90 personnel is being represented primarily by a battalion of the Rajput Regiment, besides personnel from other arms and services.
Observers from the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force are also a part of the exercise.
The French contingent comprising 90 personnel will be represented mainly by personnel from the 13th Foreign Legion Half-Brigade.
Answer: (a) It is an annual joint military exercise held between India and France; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements:
Proxima Centauri b is the closest known exoplanet to Earth.
Ganymede, Callisto, Io, and Europa, are the Galilean moons of Jupiter.
The Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) is Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency’s (JAXA) mission to discover exoplanets, including those that could support life.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system.
Most orbit other stars, but free-floating exoplanets (rogue planets) are unattached to any star.
Proxima Centauri b is Earth’s closest known exoplanet.
Statement 2 is correct
Jupiter has 95 moons that have been officially recognised by the International Astronomical Union.
Saturn has 146 moons.
Galilean moons are the four largest moons of Jupiter: Ganymede > Callisto > Io > Europa.
Statement 3 is incorrect
It is NASA’s mission to discover exoplanets, including those that could support life.
It will survey 200,000 of the brightest stars near the sun to search for transiting exoplanets.
Transiting exoplanets: Exoplanets that periodically block part of the light from their host stars.
It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system.
Most orbit other stars, but free-floating exoplanets (rogue planets) are unattached to any star.
Proxima Centauri b is Earth’s closest known exoplanet.
Statement 2 is correct
Jupiter has 95 moons that have been officially recognised by the International Astronomical Union.
Saturn has 146 moons.
Galilean moons are the four largest moons of Jupiter: Ganymede > Callisto > Io > Europa.
Statement 3 is incorrect
It is NASA’s mission to discover exoplanets, including those that could support life.
It will survey 200,000 of the brightest stars near the sun to search for transiting exoplanets.
Transiting exoplanets: Exoplanets that periodically block part of the light from their host stars.
It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system.
Most orbit other stars, but free-floating exoplanets (rogue planets) are unattached to any star.
Proxima Centauri b is Earth’s closest known exoplanet.
Statement 2 is correct
Jupiter has 95 moons that have been officially recognised by the International Astronomical Union.
Saturn has 146 moons.
Galilean moons are the four largest moons of Jupiter: Ganymede > Callisto > Io > Europa.
Statement 3 is incorrect
It is NASA’s mission to discover exoplanets, including those that could support life.
It will survey 200,000 of the brightest stars near the sun to search for transiting exoplanets.
Transiting exoplanets: Exoplanets that periodically block part of the light from their host stars.
It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q3. {IE – Securities} Consider the following statements about Gold Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):
Gold ETFs are traded on the stock exchange like any other stock.
The value of ETF units is determined by the current market price of physical gold with No Entry and Exit Load.
Each unit of a Gold ETF corresponds to ten grams of gold.
Gold ETFs are not subjected to Capital Gains Tax, Value Added Tax and Securities Transaction Tax, when redeemed.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Gold ETFs are traded on stock exchanges in a manner similar to stocks. Investors can buy and sell shares of Gold ETFs throughout the trading day at market prices.
This feature provides investors with flexibility and liquidity, as they can easily trade Gold ETFs through their brokerage accounts just like they would with stocks.
Statement 2 is correct
The value of a Gold ETF is directly linked to the current market price of physical gold. As the price of gold fluctuates, so does the value of the ETF.
Investors buy and sell ETF units on the stock exchange based on these price movements.
Gold ETFsdo not attract any entry or exit load, ensuring zero additional charges when purchasing or selling these funds.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Gold ETFs are designed to provide investors with exposure to the price of gold without the need to own physical gold.
Each unit of a Gold ETF typically represents a specific amount of gold, often one gram or a fraction thereof.
Therefore, investors can easily track their investment in terms of gold quantity.
Statement 4 is incorrect
Taxes levied on gold ETFs are similar to that levied on purchase or selling of physical gold.
An investor will be liable to pay capital gains tax if he or she trades these funds and profits.
Taxes are applicable to bothshort-term and long-term investment in these traded funds.
There are two different types of tax levied gold exchange traded funds, long term capital gain tax, applicable for investments that are of 36 months or longer.
In this case, an investor will have to pay a capital gains tax of 20%, along with indexations as applicable.
For short-term investments, exchange-traded funds will attract capital gains tax as applicable to an individual’scurrent tax slab.
Other than capital gains tax, these traded funds do not attractValue Added Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, allowing individuals to save taxes on their investment.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Gold ETFs are traded on stock exchanges in a manner similar to stocks. Investors can buy and sell shares of Gold ETFs throughout the trading day at market prices.
This feature provides investors with flexibility and liquidity, as they can easily trade Gold ETFs through their brokerage accounts just like they would with stocks.
Statement 2 is correct
The value of a Gold ETF is directly linked to the current market price of physical gold. As the price of gold fluctuates, so does the value of the ETF.
Investors buy and sell ETF units on the stock exchange based on these price movements.
Gold ETFsdo not attract any entry or exit load, ensuring zero additional charges when purchasing or selling these funds.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Gold ETFs are designed to provide investors with exposure to the price of gold without the need to own physical gold.
Each unit of a Gold ETF typically represents a specific amount of gold, often one gram or a fraction thereof.
Therefore, investors can easily track their investment in terms of gold quantity.
Statement 4 is incorrect
Taxes levied on gold ETFs are similar to that levied on purchase or selling of physical gold.
An investor will be liable to pay capital gains tax if he or she trades these funds and profits.
Taxes are applicable to bothshort-term and long-term investment in these traded funds.
There are two different types of tax levied gold exchange traded funds, long term capital gain tax, applicable for investments that are of 36 months or longer.
In this case, an investor will have to pay a capital gains tax of 20%, along with indexations as applicable.
For short-term investments, exchange-traded funds will attract capital gains tax as applicable to an individual’scurrent tax slab.
Other than capital gains tax, these traded funds do not attractValue Added Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, allowing individuals to save taxes on their investment.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Gold ETFs are traded on stock exchanges in a manner similar to stocks. Investors can buy and sell shares of Gold ETFs throughout the trading day at market prices.
This feature provides investors with flexibility and liquidity, as they can easily trade Gold ETFs through their brokerage accounts just like they would with stocks.
Statement 2 is correct
The value of a Gold ETF is directly linked to the current market price of physical gold. As the price of gold fluctuates, so does the value of the ETF.
Investors buy and sell ETF units on the stock exchange based on these price movements.
Gold ETFsdo not attract any entry or exit load, ensuring zero additional charges when purchasing or selling these funds.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Gold ETFs are designed to provide investors with exposure to the price of gold without the need to own physical gold.
Each unit of a Gold ETF typically represents a specific amount of gold, often one gram or a fraction thereof.
Therefore, investors can easily track their investment in terms of gold quantity.
Statement 4 is incorrect
Taxes levied on gold ETFs are similar to that levied on purchase or selling of physical gold.
An investor will be liable to pay capital gains tax if he or she trades these funds and profits.
Taxes are applicable to bothshort-term and long-term investment in these traded funds.
There are two different types of tax levied gold exchange traded funds, long term capital gain tax, applicable for investments that are of 36 months or longer.
In this case, an investor will have to pay a capital gains tax of 20%, along with indexations as applicable.
For short-term investments, exchange-traded funds will attract capital gains tax as applicable to an individual’scurrent tax slab.
Other than capital gains tax, these traded funds do not attractValue Added Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, allowing individuals to save taxes on their investment.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Energy} Consider the following statements:
Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO) mandates obligated entities like DISCOMS to procure a minimum percentage of electricity from renewable energy sources.
State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) determine annual RPO targets.
Renewable Energy Certificates (RECs) represent the actual physical electricity generated from renewable sources.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Electricity Act of 2003mandates RPOs as part of the renewable energy promotion framework in India.
It legally requires obligated entities to procure a certain percentage of their electricity from renewable sources.
RPO mandates certain entities, like distribution companies (DISCOMS), to purchase a specified portion of their electricity from renewable sources.
This encourages the growth of renewable energy in the overall energy mix.
Statement 2 is correct
RPO targets have progressively increased over time to promote greater adoption of renewable energy, reaching approximately 23% in 2023 from 2.75% in 2016.
State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) determine annual RPO targets.
Statement 3 is incorrect
RECs represent the environmental benefits associated with the generation of renewable energy, such as reduced carbon emissions, but they do not represent the physical electricity generated.
They serve as a mechanism for tracking and trading the environmental attributes of renewable energy.
Obligated entities can fulfill their RPO obligations by purchasing RECs without directly procuring renewable energy-generated power.
This flexibility helps entities meet their renewable energy targets while addressing challenges related to the variable nature of renewable energy sources.
They can be purchased on national energy exchanges, such as the Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) and the Power Exchange of India Limited (PXIL).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Electricity Act of 2003mandates RPOs as part of the renewable energy promotion framework in India.
It legally requires obligated entities to procure a certain percentage of their electricity from renewable sources.
RPO mandates certain entities, like distribution companies (DISCOMS), to purchase a specified portion of their electricity from renewable sources.
This encourages the growth of renewable energy in the overall energy mix.
Statement 2 is correct
RPO targets have progressively increased over time to promote greater adoption of renewable energy, reaching approximately 23% in 2023 from 2.75% in 2016.
State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) determine annual RPO targets.
Statement 3 is incorrect
RECs represent the environmental benefits associated with the generation of renewable energy, such as reduced carbon emissions, but they do not represent the physical electricity generated.
They serve as a mechanism for tracking and trading the environmental attributes of renewable energy.
Obligated entities can fulfill their RPO obligations by purchasing RECs without directly procuring renewable energy-generated power.
This flexibility helps entities meet their renewable energy targets while addressing challenges related to the variable nature of renewable energy sources.
They can be purchased on national energy exchanges, such as the Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) and the Power Exchange of India Limited (PXIL).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Electricity Act of 2003mandates RPOs as part of the renewable energy promotion framework in India.
It legally requires obligated entities to procure a certain percentage of their electricity from renewable sources.
RPO mandates certain entities, like distribution companies (DISCOMS), to purchase a specified portion of their electricity from renewable sources.
This encourages the growth of renewable energy in the overall energy mix.
Statement 2 is correct
RPO targets have progressively increased over time to promote greater adoption of renewable energy, reaching approximately 23% in 2023 from 2.75% in 2016.
State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) determine annual RPO targets.
Statement 3 is incorrect
RECs represent the environmental benefits associated with the generation of renewable energy, such as reduced carbon emissions, but they do not represent the physical electricity generated.
They serve as a mechanism for tracking and trading the environmental attributes of renewable energy.
Obligated entities can fulfill their RPO obligations by purchasing RECs without directly procuring renewable energy-generated power.
This flexibility helps entities meet their renewable energy targets while addressing challenges related to the variable nature of renewable energy sources.
They can be purchased on national energy exchanges, such as the Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) and the Power Exchange of India Limited (PXIL).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – A&C – Literature} Consider the following statements:
The Shanmata consists of six cults, including Saivam, Vaishnavam, Shaaktham, Gaanaapathyam, Kaumaram, and Souryam.
VaippuSthalams are temples which were visited by 3 Alvars, ThirugnanaSambandar, Appar and Sundarar between the 7th and 9th Centuries.
The Naalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil verses composed by the Shaiva Kuruvars, and involves adoring the deities of 108 temples situated in different parts of the country.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Shanmata, meaning “Six Sects” in Sanskrit, is a system of worship believed in the Smarta tradition to have been founded by the Hindu philosopher AdiShankara.
Each cult is dedicated to a specific deity or aspect of divinity, including Lord Shiva (Saivam), Lord Vishnu (Vaishnavam), Goddess Shakti (Shaaktham), Lord Ganesha (Gaanaapathyam), Lord Skanda or Kumara (Kaumaram), and the Sun as God (Souryam).
Statement 2 is incorrect
There are 249 Vaippu Sthalams, 189 of which are in Tamil Nadu.
Vaippu Sthalam are temples that were mentioned casually in the songs of the text.
The three saints Thirugnana Sambandar, Appar and Sundarar, could not see these temples but were referred to in their hymns.
These three Tamil poets are known as ShaivaKuruvarsand are considered the primary threeamong the sixty-three Nayanars.
There is a claim that one such Vaippu Sthalams is in the Gulf countries.
Saivites consider a visit to these Sthalams not only sacred but also a duty.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The temples dedicated to Lord Vishnu were classified as Divya Desams and considered sacred.
These temples are named in the works of 12 Alvars (Vaishnavite saints) in the NalayiraDivyaPrabandam (4,000 holy hymns in praise of Lord Vishnu).
There were a total of 108 Divya Desams, and 84 of them were in Tamil Nadu.
It was compiled in its present form by Nathamuni during the 9th–10th centuries.
The Divya Prabandham involves adoring the deities of 108 temples (Divya desams) situated in different parts of the country and employing every form of poetics and prosody available in Tamil.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Shanmata, meaning “Six Sects” in Sanskrit, is a system of worship believed in the Smarta tradition to have been founded by the Hindu philosopher AdiShankara.
Each cult is dedicated to a specific deity or aspect of divinity, including Lord Shiva (Saivam), Lord Vishnu (Vaishnavam), Goddess Shakti (Shaaktham), Lord Ganesha (Gaanaapathyam), Lord Skanda or Kumara (Kaumaram), and the Sun as God (Souryam).
Statement 2 is incorrect
There are 249 Vaippu Sthalams, 189 of which are in Tamil Nadu.
Vaippu Sthalam are temples that were mentioned casually in the songs of the text.
The three saints Thirugnana Sambandar, Appar and Sundarar, could not see these temples but were referred to in their hymns.
These three Tamil poets are known as ShaivaKuruvarsand are considered the primary threeamong the sixty-three Nayanars.
There is a claim that one such Vaippu Sthalams is in the Gulf countries.
Saivites consider a visit to these Sthalams not only sacred but also a duty.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The temples dedicated to Lord Vishnu were classified as Divya Desams and considered sacred.
These temples are named in the works of 12 Alvars (Vaishnavite saints) in the NalayiraDivyaPrabandam (4,000 holy hymns in praise of Lord Vishnu).
There were a total of 108 Divya Desams, and 84 of them were in Tamil Nadu.
It was compiled in its present form by Nathamuni during the 9th–10th centuries.
The Divya Prabandham involves adoring the deities of 108 temples (Divya desams) situated in different parts of the country and employing every form of poetics and prosody available in Tamil.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
Shanmata, meaning “Six Sects” in Sanskrit, is a system of worship believed in the Smarta tradition to have been founded by the Hindu philosopher AdiShankara.
Each cult is dedicated to a specific deity or aspect of divinity, including Lord Shiva (Saivam), Lord Vishnu (Vaishnavam), Goddess Shakti (Shaaktham), Lord Ganesha (Gaanaapathyam), Lord Skanda or Kumara (Kaumaram), and the Sun as God (Souryam).
Statement 2 is incorrect
There are 249 Vaippu Sthalams, 189 of which are in Tamil Nadu.
Vaippu Sthalam are temples that were mentioned casually in the songs of the text.
The three saints Thirugnana Sambandar, Appar and Sundarar, could not see these temples but were referred to in their hymns.
These three Tamil poets are known as ShaivaKuruvarsand are considered the primary threeamong the sixty-three Nayanars.
There is a claim that one such Vaippu Sthalams is in the Gulf countries.
Saivites consider a visit to these Sthalams not only sacred but also a duty.
Statement 3 is incorrect
The temples dedicated to Lord Vishnu were classified as Divya Desams and considered sacred.
These temples are named in the works of 12 Alvars (Vaishnavite saints) in the NalayiraDivyaPrabandam (4,000 holy hymns in praise of Lord Vishnu).
There were a total of 108 Divya Desams, and 84 of them were in Tamil Nadu.
It was compiled in its present form by Nathamuni during the 9th–10th centuries.
The Divya Prabandham involves adoring the deities of 108 temples (Divya desams) situated in different parts of the country and employing every form of poetics and prosody available in Tamil.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
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