
May 02 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – May 02 2025
0 of 8 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
Information
These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – May 02 2025 "
0 of 8 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
-
Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {Polity – IC – Judiciary} Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
- The Indian Constitution does not prescribe a fixed tenure for the Chief Justice of India; the CJI retires upon attaining the age of 65 years.
- The procedure for appointing the Chief Justice of India is explicitly detailed in Article 124(1) of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Indian Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges.
- However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- CJI is appointed under clause (2) of Article 124 of the IC, which empowers the President of India to appoint the CJI and other Supreme Court judges.
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Article 126 of the IC deals with the appointment of an Acting CJI applicable when CJI’s office is vacant and when CJI is absent or unable to discharge duties.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Indian Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges.
- However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- CJI is appointed under clause (2) of Article 124 of the IC, which empowers the President of India to appoint the CJI and other Supreme Court judges.
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Article 126 of the IC deals with the appointment of an Acting CJI applicable when CJI’s office is vacant and when CJI is absent or unable to discharge duties.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
- The Indian Constitution does not specify a fixed tenure for SC judges.
- However, it states that a judge serves until the age of 65. Any questions regarding a judge’s age are to be determined by an authority and manner provided by Parliament.
- CJI is appointed under clause (2) of Article 124 of the IC, which empowers the President of India to appoint the CJI and other Supreme Court judges.
- Though the office of the CJI is constitutionally mandated under Article 124 (1), it does not specify a detailed procedure for appointing the CJI.
- Article 126 of the IC deals with the appointment of an Acting CJI applicable when CJI’s office is vacant and when CJI is absent or unable to discharge duties.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Prelims – Sci – Bio – Diseases} Which rare genetic condition, also known as 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis, is characterised by individuals who are genetically male (having XY chromosomes) but develop female external genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics due to a failure in male gonadal development?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Swyer syndrome, also called 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis, is a rare genetic disorder, a type of hypogonadism.
- This syndrome is one of many “Disorders of Sex Development” (DSDs).
- Genetically Male But Phenotypically Female: Individuals have XY chromosomes in each cell (typically associated with males) but develop female external genitalia and characteristics.
- Genetic Basis: Caused by mutations in the SRY gene on the Y chromosome, preventing testosterone production and male gonadal development.
- Phenotypic Presentation: Individuals appear female with a vagina, underdeveloped uterus and breasts, but lack ovaries; internal gonads are typically “streak gonads”.
- The phenotype is usually similar to Turner syndrome (45,X0) due to a lack of X inactivation.
- Diagnosis: Often diagnosed during adolescence due to primary amenorrhea (failure to start menstruation by age 15 or 13 if there are no secondary sexual characteristics).
- Confirmed via karyotyping, which reveals a genetic anomaly like a 46,XY chromosome pattern.
- Medical Breakthrough: Swyer syndrome patients can achieve pregnancy through Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
Answer: (c) Swyer Syndrome; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Swyer syndrome, also called 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis, is a rare genetic disorder, a type of hypogonadism.
- This syndrome is one of many “Disorders of Sex Development” (DSDs).
- Genetically Male But Phenotypically Female: Individuals have XY chromosomes in each cell (typically associated with males) but develop female external genitalia and characteristics.
- Genetic Basis: Caused by mutations in the SRY gene on the Y chromosome, preventing testosterone production and male gonadal development.
- Phenotypic Presentation: Individuals appear female with a vagina, underdeveloped uterus and breasts, but lack ovaries; internal gonads are typically “streak gonads”.
- The phenotype is usually similar to Turner syndrome (45,X0) due to a lack of X inactivation.
- Diagnosis: Often diagnosed during adolescence due to primary amenorrhea (failure to start menstruation by age 15 or 13 if there are no secondary sexual characteristics).
- Confirmed via karyotyping, which reveals a genetic anomaly like a 46,XY chromosome pattern.
- Medical Breakthrough: Swyer syndrome patients can achieve pregnancy through Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
Answer: (c) Swyer Syndrome; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Swyer syndrome, also called 46 XY gonadal dysgenesis, is a rare genetic disorder, a type of hypogonadism.
- This syndrome is one of many “Disorders of Sex Development” (DSDs).
- Genetically Male But Phenotypically Female: Individuals have XY chromosomes in each cell (typically associated with males) but develop female external genitalia and characteristics.
- Genetic Basis: Caused by mutations in the SRY gene on the Y chromosome, preventing testosterone production and male gonadal development.
- Phenotypic Presentation: Individuals appear female with a vagina, underdeveloped uterus and breasts, but lack ovaries; internal gonads are typically “streak gonads”.
- The phenotype is usually similar to Turner syndrome (45,X0) due to a lack of X inactivation.
- Diagnosis: Often diagnosed during adolescence due to primary amenorrhea (failure to start menstruation by age 15 or 13 if there are no secondary sexual characteristics).
- Confirmed via karyotyping, which reveals a genetic anomaly like a 46,XY chromosome pattern.
- Medical Breakthrough: Swyer syndrome patients can achieve pregnancy through Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
Answer: (c) Swyer Syndrome; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Polity – IC – Judiciary} Consider the following criteria for appointment as the Chief Justice of India (CJI):
- Must be a citizen of India.
- Must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least ten years.
- Must have served as a District Judge for at least ten years.
- May be a distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the President.
How many of the above are valid eligibility criteria for appointment as the CJI?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Eligibility Criteria to be appointed as the CJI:
- The candidate must be a citizen of India.
- The person must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years.
- Alternatively, they should have been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
- The President may also appoint someone considered a distinguished jurist to the position.
- There is no requirement involving a District Judge for appointment as CJI.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Eligibility Criteria to be appointed as the CJI:
- The candidate must be a citizen of India.
- The person must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years.
- Alternatively, they should have been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
- The President may also appoint someone considered a distinguished jurist to the position.
- There is no requirement involving a District Judge for appointment as CJI.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Eligibility Criteria to be appointed as the CJI:
- The candidate must be a citizen of India.
- The person must have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years.
- Alternatively, they should have been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
- The President may also appoint someone considered a distinguished jurist to the position.
- There is no requirement involving a District Judge for appointment as CJI.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Banking} Which of the following best describes Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs), recently seen in the news?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs) are debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to finance environmentally sustainable infrastructure projects.
- These are a combination of:
- Municipal bonds: Non-convertible debt securities issued by municipal bodies or entities entrusted with functions under Article 243W of the IC, to raise capital for local public infrastructure.
- Green bonds: Bonds used specifically to fund climate mitigation, adaptation, and other environment-friendly, low-carbon projects.
- GMBs are typically backed by municipal revenues, user charges, or project-specific income.
- They qualify as ‘green’ when they fund projects with verifiable environmental benefits and comply with certification and disclosure norms.
Answer: (c) Debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies to finance climate-resilient public infrastructure; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs) are debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to finance environmentally sustainable infrastructure projects.
- These are a combination of:
- Municipal bonds: Non-convertible debt securities issued by municipal bodies or entities entrusted with functions under Article 243W of the IC, to raise capital for local public infrastructure.
- Green bonds: Bonds used specifically to fund climate mitigation, adaptation, and other environment-friendly, low-carbon projects.
- GMBs are typically backed by municipal revenues, user charges, or project-specific income.
- They qualify as ‘green’ when they fund projects with verifiable environmental benefits and comply with certification and disclosure norms.
Answer: (c) Debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies to finance climate-resilient public infrastructure; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Green Municipal Bonds (GMBs) are debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to finance environmentally sustainable infrastructure projects.
- These are a combination of:
- Municipal bonds: Non-convertible debt securities issued by municipal bodies or entities entrusted with functions under Article 243W of the IC, to raise capital for local public infrastructure.
- Green bonds: Bonds used specifically to fund climate mitigation, adaptation, and other environment-friendly, low-carbon projects.
- GMBs are typically backed by municipal revenues, user charges, or project-specific income.
- They qualify as ‘green’ when they fund projects with verifiable environmental benefits and comply with certification and disclosure norms.
Answer: (c) Debt instruments issued by Urban Local Bodies to finance climate-resilient public infrastructure; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Species – Plants} Consider the following statements about an important forage crop cultivated globally and in parts of India:
- It is a perennial legume believed to have originated in the Mediterranean region.
- It is widely used for grazing, hay, silage, and also as green manure and a cover crop.
- It grows best in well-drained soils with neutral ph and is moderately sensitive to soil salinity.
- The United States is the world’s largest producer of this crop, while Gujarat and Rajasthan are key producers in India.
Identify the crop based on the clues provided above:
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Alfalfa, also called lucerne, is a perennial flowering plant in the legume family Fabaceae. Alfalfa derives its name from the Arabic word al-fasfasa that means the best forage.
- Origin: Alfalfa is believed to have originated in the Mediterranean region.
- Use: It is cultivated as an important forage crop & used for grazing, hay, & silage, as well as a green manure and cover crop.
- Climatic Conditions: The crop is grown under a wide range of climates where average daily temperature during the growing period is above 5°C.
- Temperature: The optimum temperature for growth is about 25°C and growth decreases sharply when temperatures are above 30°C and below l0°C.
- Soil: Can be sown in spring or fall, and does best on well-drained soils with a neutral pH of 6.8–7.5. It requires sustained levels of potassium and phosphorus to grow well.
- It is moderately sensitive to salt levels in the soil.
Credit: Wikipedia
- Production:
- Global: US is the world’s largest alfalfa producer.
- India: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan are major Alfalfa producing states.
- Significance: Owing to its deep root system, it helps to improve soil nitrogen fertility and protect from soil erosion.
Answer: (c) Alfalfa; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Alfalfa, also called lucerne, is a perennial flowering plant in the legume family Fabaceae. Alfalfa derives its name from the Arabic word al-fasfasa that means the best forage.
- Origin: Alfalfa is believed to have originated in the Mediterranean region.
- Use: It is cultivated as an important forage crop & used for grazing, hay, & silage, as well as a green manure and cover crop.
- Climatic Conditions: The crop is grown under a wide range of climates where average daily temperature during the growing period is above 5°C.
- Temperature: The optimum temperature for growth is about 25°C and growth decreases sharply when temperatures are above 30°C and below l0°C.
- Soil: Can be sown in spring or fall, and does best on well-drained soils with a neutral pH of 6.8–7.5. It requires sustained levels of potassium and phosphorus to grow well.
- It is moderately sensitive to salt levels in the soil.
Credit: Wikipedia
- Production:
- Global: US is the world’s largest alfalfa producer.
- India: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan are major Alfalfa producing states.
- Significance: Owing to its deep root system, it helps to improve soil nitrogen fertility and protect from soil erosion.
Answer: (c) Alfalfa; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Alfalfa, also called lucerne, is a perennial flowering plant in the legume family Fabaceae. Alfalfa derives its name from the Arabic word al-fasfasa that means the best forage.
- Origin: Alfalfa is believed to have originated in the Mediterranean region.
- Use: It is cultivated as an important forage crop & used for grazing, hay, & silage, as well as a green manure and cover crop.
- Climatic Conditions: The crop is grown under a wide range of climates where average daily temperature during the growing period is above 5°C.
- Temperature: The optimum temperature for growth is about 25°C and growth decreases sharply when temperatures are above 30°C and below l0°C.
- Soil: Can be sown in spring or fall, and does best on well-drained soils with a neutral pH of 6.8–7.5. It requires sustained levels of potassium and phosphorus to grow well.
- It is moderately sensitive to salt levels in the soil.
Credit: Wikipedia
- Production:
- Global: US is the world’s largest alfalfa producer.
- India: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan are major Alfalfa producing states.
- Significance: Owing to its deep root system, it helps to improve soil nitrogen fertility and protect from soil erosion.
Answer: (c) Alfalfa; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – Awards} Consider the following statements about the Padma Awards:
- The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 and are announced every year on Republic Day.
- Government servants, except for doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these awards.
- The total number of awards conferred each year must not exceed 120, including posthumous and foreign awardees.
- The Padma Awards can be used as titles and are often added as suffixes or prefixes to the awardees’ names.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- The Padma Awards are among India’s highest civilian honours, recognising outstanding contributions across fields like arts, literature, sports, social service, public affairs, and more.
- Announcement of Awards: Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day (except for a brief period during the years 1978 & 1979 and 1993-1997).
- Eligibility:
- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
- Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards.
- Conferment: Presented by the President of India, the awards are conferred at a ceremonial function at Rashtrapati Bhavan, typically held in March/April each year.
- 3 Categories:
- Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
- Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order)
- Padma Shri (distinguished service)
- Recommendations: The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee (headed by the Cabinet Secretary), which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
- The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
- Total Awards: The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/Overseas Citizens of India) should not be more than 120.
- Other:
- The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously.
- The award does not amount to a title & cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardee’s name.
- A higher category of Padma award can be conferred on a person only where at least five years have elapsed since the conferment of the earlier Padma award. However, in highly deserving cases, a relaxation can be made by the Awards Committee.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- The Padma Awards are among India’s highest civilian honours, recognising outstanding contributions across fields like arts, literature, sports, social service, public affairs, and more.
- Announcement of Awards: Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day (except for a brief period during the years 1978 & 1979 and 1993-1997).
- Eligibility:
- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
- Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards.
- Conferment: Presented by the President of India, the awards are conferred at a ceremonial function at Rashtrapati Bhavan, typically held in March/April each year.
- 3 Categories:
- Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
- Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order)
- Padma Shri (distinguished service)
- Recommendations: The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee (headed by the Cabinet Secretary), which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
- The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
- Total Awards: The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/Overseas Citizens of India) should not be more than 120.
- Other:
- The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously.
- The award does not amount to a title & cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardee’s name.
- A higher category of Padma award can be conferred on a person only where at least five years have elapsed since the conferment of the earlier Padma award. However, in highly deserving cases, a relaxation can be made by the Awards Committee.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- The Padma Awards are among India’s highest civilian honours, recognising outstanding contributions across fields like arts, literature, sports, social service, public affairs, and more.
- Announcement of Awards: Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day (except for a brief period during the years 1978 & 1979 and 1993-1997).
- Eligibility:
- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards.
- Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards.
- Conferment: Presented by the President of India, the awards are conferred at a ceremonial function at Rashtrapati Bhavan, typically held in March/April each year.
- 3 Categories:
- Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service)
- Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order)
- Padma Shri (distinguished service)
- Recommendations: The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee (headed by the Cabinet Secretary), which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
- The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
- Total Awards: The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/Overseas Citizens of India) should not be more than 120.
- Other:
- The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously.
- The award does not amount to a title & cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardee’s name.
- A higher category of Padma award can be conferred on a person only where at least five years have elapsed since the conferment of the earlier Padma award. However, in highly deserving cases, a relaxation can be made by the Awards Committee.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Social Sector – Health} Consider the following statements:
- Statement-I: The continued use of antimicrobial growth promoters (AMGPs) in livestock can undermine critical public health interventions against drug-resistant pathogens.
- Statement-ll: AMGPs contribute to increased productivity in animal farming by altering gut microbiota, but in doing so, exert selective pressure that accelerates antimicrobial resistance (AMR) evolution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Antimicrobial Growth Promoters (AMGPs) are antibiotics administered in low doses to livestock to enhance growth, reduce gut inflammation and increase feed efficiency.
- They suppress gut bacteria, but also create selective pressure that fosters antibiotic-resistant strains, compromising future treatments.
- India announced a national ban on specific antibiotics in meat, milk, poultry and aquaculture, to combat rising antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
- The WHO defines antimicrobial resistance (antibiotic, antiviral, antimalarial resistance) as a microorganism’s resistance to an antimicrobial drug that was once able to treat an infection by that microorganism.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Antimicrobial Growth Promoters (AMGPs) are antibiotics administered in low doses to livestock to enhance growth, reduce gut inflammation and increase feed efficiency.
- They suppress gut bacteria, but also create selective pressure that fosters antibiotic-resistant strains, compromising future treatments.
- India announced a national ban on specific antibiotics in meat, milk, poultry and aquaculture, to combat rising antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
- The WHO defines antimicrobial resistance (antibiotic, antiviral, antimalarial resistance) as a microorganism’s resistance to an antimicrobial drug that was once able to treat an infection by that microorganism.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- Antimicrobial Growth Promoters (AMGPs) are antibiotics administered in low doses to livestock to enhance growth, reduce gut inflammation and increase feed efficiency.
- They suppress gut bacteria, but also create selective pressure that fosters antibiotic-resistant strains, compromising future treatments.
- India announced a national ban on specific antibiotics in meat, milk, poultry and aquaculture, to combat rising antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
- The WHO defines antimicrobial resistance (antibiotic, antiviral, antimalarial resistance) as a microorganism’s resistance to an antimicrobial drug that was once able to treat an infection by that microorganism.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {A&C – Architecture} Consider the following statements regarding the Jagannath Temple at Puri:
- The Jagannath Temple, located in Odisha, is built in the Dravidian style of architecture.
- The idols of Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra are made of stone.
- The temple is a part of the Char Dham pilgrimage and is also known as the Black Pagoda.
- The temple flag, Patitapabana, always flies in the direction of the wind and is replaced daily at sunset.
- The Chariot Festival is conducted in winter and is limited to members of certain castes.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Jagannath Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the Lord Jagannath, a form of Vishnu in Hinduism and two of his siblings, Balaram and Subhadra.
- Location: Puri (Odisha).
- Char Dham: Jagannath Temple, also known as the White Pagoda, is part of the Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram).
- Konark Sun Temple is known as the Black Pagoda.
- Built by: The present temple was rebuilt from the 10th century onwards on the site of an earlier temple and begun by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
- It was further developed during the reigns of the subsequent kings, including those of the Ganga dynasty and the Gajapati dynasty.
- Style: Kalinga temple architecture, not Dravidian Style.
- Key Features
- Wood Idols: The idols of the holy trinity are carved out of wood rather than stone or metal idols. The ritual of changing the wooden forms of the deities is known as Nabakalebara.
- Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira: The entire complex, enclosed within two concentric walls known as the Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira.
- No Shadow: The main temple is constructed in such a way that no shadow of the temple falls on the ground at any time of the day.
- Nilachakra (Blue wheel): Perched on top of the temple, it is made of eight metals or asta dhatu.
- Patitapabana: The flag, or Patitapabana, flows in the opposite direction of the wind and is changed every day at sunset.
- Festivals Associated with the Temple
- Devasnana Purnima: The annual bathing ritual, where the holy trinity is brought out from their sanctum on seated on a raised platform and bathed with purified water drawn from a well within the temple premises.
- Chariot Festival: This happens during June/July. During the festival, the Lord comes out to the street to greet his devotees; people irrespective of caste, creed & colour can seek his blessings.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Jagannath Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the Lord Jagannath, a form of Vishnu in Hinduism and two of his siblings, Balaram and Subhadra.
- Location: Puri (Odisha).
- Char Dham: Jagannath Temple, also known as the White Pagoda, is part of the Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram).
- Konark Sun Temple is known as the Black Pagoda.
- Built by: The present temple was rebuilt from the 10th century onwards on the site of an earlier temple and begun by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
- It was further developed during the reigns of the subsequent kings, including those of the Ganga dynasty and the Gajapati dynasty.
- Style: Kalinga temple architecture, not Dravidian Style.
- Key Features
- Wood Idols: The idols of the holy trinity are carved out of wood rather than stone or metal idols. The ritual of changing the wooden forms of the deities is known as Nabakalebara.
- Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira: The entire complex, enclosed within two concentric walls known as the Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira.
- No Shadow: The main temple is constructed in such a way that no shadow of the temple falls on the ground at any time of the day.
- Nilachakra (Blue wheel): Perched on top of the temple, it is made of eight metals or asta dhatu.
- Patitapabana: The flag, or Patitapabana, flows in the opposite direction of the wind and is changed every day at sunset.
- Festivals Associated with the Temple
- Devasnana Purnima: The annual bathing ritual, where the holy trinity is brought out from their sanctum on seated on a raised platform and bathed with purified water drawn from a well within the temple premises.
- Chariot Festival: This happens during June/July. During the festival, the Lord comes out to the street to greet his devotees; people irrespective of caste, creed & colour can seek his blessings.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Jagannath Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the Lord Jagannath, a form of Vishnu in Hinduism and two of his siblings, Balaram and Subhadra.
- Location: Puri (Odisha).
- Char Dham: Jagannath Temple, also known as the White Pagoda, is part of the Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram).
- Konark Sun Temple is known as the Black Pagoda.
- Built by: The present temple was rebuilt from the 10th century onwards on the site of an earlier temple and begun by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
- It was further developed during the reigns of the subsequent kings, including those of the Ganga dynasty and the Gajapati dynasty.
- Style: Kalinga temple architecture, not Dravidian Style.
- Key Features
- Wood Idols: The idols of the holy trinity are carved out of wood rather than stone or metal idols. The ritual of changing the wooden forms of the deities is known as Nabakalebara.
- Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira: The entire complex, enclosed within two concentric walls known as the Kuruma Bheda and Meghnad Pachira.
- No Shadow: The main temple is constructed in such a way that no shadow of the temple falls on the ground at any time of the day.
- Nilachakra (Blue wheel): Perched on top of the temple, it is made of eight metals or asta dhatu.
- Patitapabana: The flag, or Patitapabana, flows in the opposite direction of the wind and is changed every day at sunset.
- Festivals Associated with the Temple
- Devasnana Purnima: The annual bathing ritual, where the holy trinity is brought out from their sanctum on seated on a raised platform and bathed with purified water drawn from a well within the temple premises.
- Chariot Festival: This happens during June/July. During the festival, the Lord comes out to the street to greet his devotees; people irrespective of caste, creed & colour can seek his blessings.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Medium
Newsletter Updates
Subscribe to our newsletter and never miss an important update!
Assured Discounts on our New Products!
3 of 8 questions answered correctly
Your time: 00:01:25