
March 27 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 27 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {A&C – Sites} Consider the following statements:
- Poompuhar was a key port of the Chola Empire in trade with other Asian nations and Arabs.
- The Pallavas ruled South India after defeating the Cholas.
- Rajaraja I and Rajendra I were notable rulers of chola dynasty.
- Poompuhar is mentioned in Sangam literature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct
- Poompuhar, an ancient port in Tamil Nadu, was a maritime hub during the Chola era.
- Known as Kaveripattinam, it is in Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu), at the mouth of the Kaveri River.
- Mentioned in Sangam Tamil literature and Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, it served as the port city and key trade hub of the Chola Empire, facilitating spice trade with other Asian nations and Arabs.
- Shifted locations due to rising sea levels, finally re-established 3,000 years ago.
- Archaeological evidence of harbour structures, sea walls, and a possible bridge.
- Strengthened Chola Naval Power & Trade: Poompuhar (Puhar) enabled extensive maritime trade and naval dominance, strengthening Chola power and influence across Southeast Asia.
Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- The Chola dynasty Ruled from the 9th to 12th century AD after defeating the Pallavas.
- Vijayalaya Chola, the founder, captured Tanjore in the 8th century. Controlled central and northern Tamil Nadu, with Uraiyur as the capital.
- Rajaraja I and Rajendra I were the most notable rulers.
- Defeated by the Pandyas in the early 13th century, Rajendra III was the last ruler to be defeated by Jatavarman Sundarapandya II.
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct
- Poompuhar, an ancient port in Tamil Nadu, was a maritime hub during the Chola era.
- Known as Kaveripattinam, it is in Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu), at the mouth of the Kaveri River.
- Mentioned in Sangam Tamil literature and Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, it served as the port city and key trade hub of the Chola Empire, facilitating spice trade with other Asian nations and Arabs.
- Shifted locations due to rising sea levels, finally re-established 3,000 years ago.
- Archaeological evidence of harbour structures, sea walls, and a possible bridge.
- Strengthened Chola Naval Power & Trade: Poompuhar (Puhar) enabled extensive maritime trade and naval dominance, strengthening Chola power and influence across Southeast Asia.
Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- The Chola dynasty Ruled from the 9th to 12th century AD after defeating the Pallavas.
- Vijayalaya Chola, the founder, captured Tanjore in the 8th century. Controlled central and northern Tamil Nadu, with Uraiyur as the capital.
- Rajaraja I and Rajendra I were the most notable rulers.
- Defeated by the Pandyas in the early 13th century, Rajendra III was the last ruler to be defeated by Jatavarman Sundarapandya II.
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 4 are correct
- Poompuhar, an ancient port in Tamil Nadu, was a maritime hub during the Chola era.
- Known as Kaveripattinam, it is in Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu), at the mouth of the Kaveri River.
- Mentioned in Sangam Tamil literature and Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, it served as the port city and key trade hub of the Chola Empire, facilitating spice trade with other Asian nations and Arabs.
- Shifted locations due to rising sea levels, finally re-established 3,000 years ago.
- Archaeological evidence of harbour structures, sea walls, and a possible bridge.
- Strengthened Chola Naval Power & Trade: Poompuhar (Puhar) enabled extensive maritime trade and naval dominance, strengthening Chola power and influence across Southeast Asia.
Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- The Chola dynasty Ruled from the 9th to 12th century AD after defeating the Pallavas.
- Vijayalaya Chola, the founder, captured Tanjore in the 8th century. Controlled central and northern Tamil Nadu, with Uraiyur as the capital.
- Rajaraja I and Rajendra I were the most notable rulers.
- Defeated by the Pandyas in the early 13th century, Rajendra III was the last ruler to be defeated by Jatavarman Sundarapandya II.
Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Social Sector – Health} Tirzepatide, recently seen in news is a:
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Tirzepatide is an active ingredient of one of the most advanced weight loss drugs, Mounjaro, which is to be sold in India by US pharma company Eli Lilly.
- Tirzepatide helps control blood sugar and supports weight loss.
- Tirzepatide is a prescription-only injectable medication, primarily approved for managing type 2 diabetes and now also for weight loss.
Answer: (b) Weight loss drug; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Tirzepatide is an active ingredient of one of the most advanced weight loss drugs, Mounjaro, which is to be sold in India by US pharma company Eli Lilly.
- Tirzepatide helps control blood sugar and supports weight loss.
- Tirzepatide is a prescription-only injectable medication, primarily approved for managing type 2 diabetes and now also for weight loss.
Answer: (b) Weight loss drug; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Tirzepatide is an active ingredient of one of the most advanced weight loss drugs, Mounjaro, which is to be sold in India by US pharma company Eli Lilly.
- Tirzepatide helps control blood sugar and supports weight loss.
- Tirzepatide is a prescription-only injectable medication, primarily approved for managing type 2 diabetes and now also for weight loss.
Answer: (b) Weight loss drug; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {MoCoop – Initiatives} Consider the following statements about Bharatiya Beej Sahakari Samiti Limited:
- It was established in 2023 under the Companies Act 2013.
- It aims to provide artificial insemination services to cattle farmers to improve breeding efficiency.
- Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying functions as its nodal agency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Ministry of Cooperation has launched Bharatiya Beej Sahakari Samiti Limited (BBSSL) to provide high-quality seeds under a single brand, “Bharat Beej”.
- BBSSL was established in 2023 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act 2002 to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers.
- Nodal agency: Ministry of Cooperation.
- It aims to enhance crop productivity by supplying traditional and scientifically prepared certified seeds to every farmer. (Traditional seeds are naturally grown in indigenous regions, ideally suited for quality and nutritional excellence in local environments).
- Promoted by: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO), KRIBHCO, NAFED, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and NCDC.
- Breeder seeds will be sourced from Public Sector Research Organizations and International Research Institutes like ICRISAT and IRRI.
- BBSSL has obtained a seed license from the government of Jharkhand.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Ministry of Cooperation has launched Bharatiya Beej Sahakari Samiti Limited (BBSSL) to provide high-quality seeds under a single brand, “Bharat Beej”.
- BBSSL was established in 2023 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act 2002 to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers.
- Nodal agency: Ministry of Cooperation.
- It aims to enhance crop productivity by supplying traditional and scientifically prepared certified seeds to every farmer. (Traditional seeds are naturally grown in indigenous regions, ideally suited for quality and nutritional excellence in local environments).
- Promoted by: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO), KRIBHCO, NAFED, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and NCDC.
- Breeder seeds will be sourced from Public Sector Research Organizations and International Research Institutes like ICRISAT and IRRI.
- BBSSL has obtained a seed license from the government of Jharkhand.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- The Ministry of Cooperation has launched Bharatiya Beej Sahakari Samiti Limited (BBSSL) to provide high-quality seeds under a single brand, “Bharat Beej”.
- BBSSL was established in 2023 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act 2002 to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers.
- Nodal agency: Ministry of Cooperation.
- It aims to enhance crop productivity by supplying traditional and scientifically prepared certified seeds to every farmer. (Traditional seeds are naturally grown in indigenous regions, ideally suited for quality and nutritional excellence in local environments).
- Promoted by: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO), KRIBHCO, NAFED, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and NCDC.
- Breeder seeds will be sourced from Public Sector Research Organizations and International Research Institutes like ICRISAT and IRRI.
- BBSSL has obtained a seed license from the government of Jharkhand.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – IC – Judiciary} Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India empowers the President to transfer High Court judges based on the CJI’s recommendation without requiring the judge’s consent.
- A recommendation by the Collegium for the transfer of a High Court needs to be approved by the Executive to take effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- CJI ordered a 3-member in-house inquiry into Justice Yashwant Varma’s case, leading to his transfer to Allahabad HC
Both statements are correct
- Process of Judicial Transfers in India:
- Constitutional Provision: Article 222 empowers the President to transfer High Court judges based on the CJI’s recommendation without requiring the judge’s consent.
- Role of CJI and Collegium: The CJI initiates the transfer, consulting the Chief Justices of both High Courts involved and relevant SC judges for a judge’s transfer, while the Collegium (CJI + 4 senior-most SC judges) decides for a Chief Justice.
- Considerations for Transfer: The Collegium evaluates judicial performance, health conditions, and location preferences before finalising the transfer.
- Executive Approval: Law Ministry forwards the Collegium’s recommendation to the PM, who advises the President for approval.
- Final Notification: Department of Justice, Ministry of Law issues an official Gazette notification and informs the Chief Justices and Chief Ministers concerned.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- CJI ordered a 3-member in-house inquiry into Justice Yashwant Varma’s case, leading to his transfer to Allahabad HC
Both statements are correct
- Process of Judicial Transfers in India:
- Constitutional Provision: Article 222 empowers the President to transfer High Court judges based on the CJI’s recommendation without requiring the judge’s consent.
- Role of CJI and Collegium: The CJI initiates the transfer, consulting the Chief Justices of both High Courts involved and relevant SC judges for a judge’s transfer, while the Collegium (CJI + 4 senior-most SC judges) decides for a Chief Justice.
- Considerations for Transfer: The Collegium evaluates judicial performance, health conditions, and location preferences before finalising the transfer.
- Executive Approval: Law Ministry forwards the Collegium’s recommendation to the PM, who advises the President for approval.
- Final Notification: Department of Justice, Ministry of Law issues an official Gazette notification and informs the Chief Justices and Chief Ministers concerned.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- CJI ordered a 3-member in-house inquiry into Justice Yashwant Varma’s case, leading to his transfer to Allahabad HC
Both statements are correct
- Process of Judicial Transfers in India:
- Constitutional Provision: Article 222 empowers the President to transfer High Court judges based on the CJI’s recommendation without requiring the judge’s consent.
- Role of CJI and Collegium: The CJI initiates the transfer, consulting the Chief Justices of both High Courts involved and relevant SC judges for a judge’s transfer, while the Collegium (CJI + 4 senior-most SC judges) decides for a Chief Justice.
- Considerations for Transfer: The Collegium evaluates judicial performance, health conditions, and location preferences before finalising the transfer.
- Executive Approval: Law Ministry forwards the Collegium’s recommendation to the PM, who advises the President for approval.
- Final Notification: Department of Justice, Ministry of Law issues an official Gazette notification and informs the Chief Justices and Chief Ministers concerned.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {MoCA – Schemes} Which of the following is not correct regarding the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore youth with internships over five years in top 500 companies, providing a valuable bridge between academic learning and industry expectations.
- Enhancement of Employability: The scheme is aimed at enhancing youth employability through real-world hands-on job experience & focuses on skill development across multiple sectors.
- Part of Atmanirbhar Bharat: Contributes to India’s vision of self-reliance by nurturing a skilled work-force, positioning India as the “Skill Capital of the World.”
- Managed by: Managed through an online portal by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
Option (b) is incorrect
- Inclusions: Youth aged 21-24 years who are not in full-time education or full-time employment.
- Educational Requirements: Candidates must have completed intermediate and hold certificates from ITI/polytechnic institutes, an AICTE-recognized diploma, or a bachelor’s degree.
Option (c) is correct
- Reservation: Same reservation structure as govt jobs for SCs, STs, OBCs, and disabled candidates.
- Exclusions: Candidates from IITs, IIMs, and those holding advanced degrees (MBA, CA) are ineligible; Candidates whose family member (self/ spouse/ parent) either earning 8 lakh per annum or having a govt job; those enrolled in any Central/State Govt apprenticeship, skill or training schemes are ineligible.
Option (d) is correct
- Target Internships: Includes 25 sectors like pharma, auto, agriculture, healthcare, leather manufacturing, textile, telecom, oil, gas & energy, travel & hospitality, banking & financial services, etc.
- Internship Duration: 12-month internships are offered.
- Stipend: ₹5,000 per month (Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the company’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) fund.
- Support for Incidentals: A one-time ₹6,000 grant to cover incidental expenses.
Answer: (b) Youth engaged in full-time or part-time employment are eligible for the scheme; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore youth with internships over five years in top 500 companies, providing a valuable bridge between academic learning and industry expectations.
- Enhancement of Employability: The scheme is aimed at enhancing youth employability through real-world hands-on job experience & focuses on skill development across multiple sectors.
- Part of Atmanirbhar Bharat: Contributes to India’s vision of self-reliance by nurturing a skilled work-force, positioning India as the “Skill Capital of the World.”
- Managed by: Managed through an online portal by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
Option (b) is incorrect
- Inclusions: Youth aged 21-24 years who are not in full-time education or full-time employment.
- Educational Requirements: Candidates must have completed intermediate and hold certificates from ITI/polytechnic institutes, an AICTE-recognized diploma, or a bachelor’s degree.
Option (c) is correct
- Reservation: Same reservation structure as govt jobs for SCs, STs, OBCs, and disabled candidates.
- Exclusions: Candidates from IITs, IIMs, and those holding advanced degrees (MBA, CA) are ineligible; Candidates whose family member (self/ spouse/ parent) either earning 8 lakh per annum or having a govt job; those enrolled in any Central/State Govt apprenticeship, skill or training schemes are ineligible.
Option (d) is correct
- Target Internships: Includes 25 sectors like pharma, auto, agriculture, healthcare, leather manufacturing, textile, telecom, oil, gas & energy, travel & hospitality, banking & financial services, etc.
- Internship Duration: 12-month internships are offered.
- Stipend: ₹5,000 per month (Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the company’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) fund.
- Support for Incidentals: A one-time ₹6,000 grant to cover incidental expenses.
Answer: (b) Youth engaged in full-time or part-time employment are eligible for the scheme; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme aims to provide 1 crore youth with internships over five years in top 500 companies, providing a valuable bridge between academic learning and industry expectations.
- Enhancement of Employability: The scheme is aimed at enhancing youth employability through real-world hands-on job experience & focuses on skill development across multiple sectors.
- Part of Atmanirbhar Bharat: Contributes to India’s vision of self-reliance by nurturing a skilled work-force, positioning India as the “Skill Capital of the World.”
- Managed by: Managed through an online portal by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).
Option (b) is incorrect
- Inclusions: Youth aged 21-24 years who are not in full-time education or full-time employment.
- Educational Requirements: Candidates must have completed intermediate and hold certificates from ITI/polytechnic institutes, an AICTE-recognized diploma, or a bachelor’s degree.
Option (c) is correct
- Reservation: Same reservation structure as govt jobs for SCs, STs, OBCs, and disabled candidates.
- Exclusions: Candidates from IITs, IIMs, and those holding advanced degrees (MBA, CA) are ineligible; Candidates whose family member (self/ spouse/ parent) either earning 8 lakh per annum or having a govt job; those enrolled in any Central/State Govt apprenticeship, skill or training schemes are ineligible.
Option (d) is correct
- Target Internships: Includes 25 sectors like pharma, auto, agriculture, healthcare, leather manufacturing, textile, telecom, oil, gas & energy, travel & hospitality, banking & financial services, etc.
- Internship Duration: 12-month internships are offered.
- Stipend: ₹5,000 per month (Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of ₹4,500 from the government and ₹500 from the company’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) fund.
- Support for Incidentals: A one-time ₹6,000 grant to cover incidental expenses.
Answer: (b) Youth engaged in full-time or part-time employment are eligible for the scheme; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Social Sector – Health} Consider the following statements regarding i-DRONE initiative:
- The initiative is launched by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to improve healthcare delivery through drone technology.
- It was designed to deliver medical supplies to remote regions in Northeast India exclusively.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- i-DRONE initiative (ICMR’s Drone Response and Outreach in North East): Project by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) aimed at using drone technology to improve healthcare delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Launch: i-DRONE platform was originally conceived during the COVID-19 pandemic to deliver vaccines and medical supplies to remote regions in Northeast India.
- It is now being expanded to other regions.
- Objective:
- To enhance healthcare access in remote, hilly, and hard-to-reach regions.
- Transport essential medical supplies like vaccines, blood samples, and samples using drones.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- i-DRONE initiative (ICMR’s Drone Response and Outreach in North East): Project by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) aimed at using drone technology to improve healthcare delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Launch: i-DRONE platform was originally conceived during the COVID-19 pandemic to deliver vaccines and medical supplies to remote regions in Northeast India.
- It is now being expanded to other regions.
- Objective:
- To enhance healthcare access in remote, hilly, and hard-to-reach regions.
- Transport essential medical supplies like vaccines, blood samples, and samples using drones.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- i-DRONE initiative (ICMR’s Drone Response and Outreach in North East): Project by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) aimed at using drone technology to improve healthcare delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Launch: i-DRONE platform was originally conceived during the COVID-19 pandemic to deliver vaccines and medical supplies to remote regions in Northeast India.
- It is now being expanded to other regions.
- Objective:
- To enhance healthcare access in remote, hilly, and hard-to-reach regions.
- Transport essential medical supplies like vaccines, blood samples, and samples using drones.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements regarding the Bedmap3:
- It is an advanced mapping project that accurately depicts the hidden seabed landscape.
- The project utilizes radar, seismic, and gravity data to provide major improvements over its predecessors, Bedmap1 and Bedmap2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
- Scientists from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) have unveiled Bedmap3, which has revealed hidden wonders under the icy surface of Antarctica.
- What is Bedmap3:
- It is the most detailed & accurate map ever created of Antarctica’s hidden landscape beneath its ice sheet.
- Advanced Imaging: It uses radar, seismic, and gravity data to map Antarctica’s hidden terrain, offering major improvements over Bedmap1 and Bedmap2.
- Significance:
- Fills Knowledge Gaps: It improves understanding of less-known areas like East Antarctica, South Pole region, Antarctic Peninsula, West Antarctic coastlines, and Transantarctic Mountains.
- Tracks Ice-Ocean Interaction: Provides essential data to study how Antarctic ice moves and interacts with surrounding oceans.
- Geological Insights: Helps researchers explore Antarctica’s geological history and how its landscape evolved over time.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
- Scientists from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) have unveiled Bedmap3, which has revealed hidden wonders under the icy surface of Antarctica.
- What is Bedmap3:
- It is the most detailed & accurate map ever created of Antarctica’s hidden landscape beneath its ice sheet.
- Advanced Imaging: It uses radar, seismic, and gravity data to map Antarctica’s hidden terrain, offering major improvements over Bedmap1 and Bedmap2.
- Significance:
- Fills Knowledge Gaps: It improves understanding of less-known areas like East Antarctica, South Pole region, Antarctic Peninsula, West Antarctic coastlines, and Transantarctic Mountains.
- Tracks Ice-Ocean Interaction: Provides essential data to study how Antarctic ice moves and interacts with surrounding oceans.
- Geological Insights: Helps researchers explore Antarctica’s geological history and how its landscape evolved over time.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
- Scientists from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) have unveiled Bedmap3, which has revealed hidden wonders under the icy surface of Antarctica.
- What is Bedmap3:
- It is the most detailed & accurate map ever created of Antarctica’s hidden landscape beneath its ice sheet.
- Advanced Imaging: It uses radar, seismic, and gravity data to map Antarctica’s hidden terrain, offering major improvements over Bedmap1 and Bedmap2.
- Significance:
- Fills Knowledge Gaps: It improves understanding of less-known areas like East Antarctica, South Pole region, Antarctic Peninsula, West Antarctic coastlines, and Transantarctic Mountains.
- Tracks Ice-Ocean Interaction: Provides essential data to study how Antarctic ice moves and interacts with surrounding oceans.
- Geological Insights: Helps researchers explore Antarctica’s geological history and how its landscape evolved over time.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Polity – IC – FRs} With reference to the defamation in India, consider the following statements:
- Defamation refers to harming an individual’s reputation through false or malicious statements.
- In India, only spoken defamation is considered a criminal offense.
- Criminal defamation is recognized as a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of expression.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
- Criminal Defamation:
- Defamation: Harming a person’s reputation through false/malicious statements (Black’s Law Dictionary).
- Types: Libel (written defamation) & slander (spoken defamation); both are criminal offences in India. A defamatory statement must be made publicly to qualify as an offence under Indian law.
- Legal Provisions: IPC Section 499 and the 2023 Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Act (Section 354(2)) prescribe up to two years of imprisonment, a fine, or community service for defamation.
Statement 3 is correct
- Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016): SC upheld the constitutionality of IPC Sections 499 and 500 (prescribing punishment for Sec. 499). It held that –
- Right to reputation is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Article 19(1)(a) grants freedom of speech, but Article 19(2) allows restrictions based on sovereignty, security, public order, morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement.
- Criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of expression.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
- Criminal Defamation:
- Defamation: Harming a person’s reputation through false/malicious statements (Black’s Law Dictionary).
- Types: Libel (written defamation) & slander (spoken defamation); both are criminal offences in India. A defamatory statement must be made publicly to qualify as an offence under Indian law.
- Legal Provisions: IPC Section 499 and the 2023 Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Act (Section 354(2)) prescribe up to two years of imprisonment, a fine, or community service for defamation.
Statement 3 is correct
- Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016): SC upheld the constitutionality of IPC Sections 499 and 500 (prescribing punishment for Sec. 499). It held that –
- Right to reputation is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Article 19(1)(a) grants freedom of speech, but Article 19(2) allows restrictions based on sovereignty, security, public order, morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement.
- Criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of expression.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
- Criminal Defamation:
- Defamation: Harming a person’s reputation through false/malicious statements (Black’s Law Dictionary).
- Types: Libel (written defamation) & slander (spoken defamation); both are criminal offences in India. A defamatory statement must be made publicly to qualify as an offence under Indian law.
- Legal Provisions: IPC Section 499 and the 2023 Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Act (Section 354(2)) prescribe up to two years of imprisonment, a fine, or community service for defamation.
Statement 3 is correct
- Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016): SC upheld the constitutionality of IPC Sections 499 and 500 (prescribing punishment for Sec. 499). It held that –
- Right to reputation is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution.
- Article 19(1)(a) grants freedom of speech, but Article 19(2) allows restrictions based on sovereignty, security, public order, morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement.
- Criminal defamation is a reasonable restriction on the right to freedom of expression.
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
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