
March 07 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – March 07 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {Species – Mammals} Which of the following technologies was used to create genetically modified “woolly mice”?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Genetically modified “woolly mice” have been created by editing genes to mimic the cold-resistant traits of woolly mammoths.
- CRISPR-Cas9 system was used to modify DNA precisely. Scientists analysed mammoth and Asian elephant genomes to identify cold-resistant gene variants.
- Woolly Mammoths
- Scientific Name: Mammuthus primigenius
- Habitat: Cold tundra regions of Eurasia and North America during the Ice Age.
- Physical Adaptations: Thick woolly coat, fat layer for insulation, and small ears to minimise heat loss.
- Diet & Behavior: Lived in herds and fed on grass and shrubs.
- Extinction Causes: Climate change, habitat loss & human hunting led to their extinction ~4,000 yrs ago.
- Reviving mammoth-like elephants could restore Arctic ecosystems & slow down permafrost thawing.
Answer: (a) CRISPR-Cas9 system; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Genetically modified “woolly mice” have been created by editing genes to mimic the cold-resistant traits of woolly mammoths.
- CRISPR-Cas9 system was used to modify DNA precisely. Scientists analysed mammoth and Asian elephant genomes to identify cold-resistant gene variants.
- Woolly Mammoths
- Scientific Name: Mammuthus primigenius
- Habitat: Cold tundra regions of Eurasia and North America during the Ice Age.
- Physical Adaptations: Thick woolly coat, fat layer for insulation, and small ears to minimise heat loss.
- Diet & Behavior: Lived in herds and fed on grass and shrubs.
- Extinction Causes: Climate change, habitat loss & human hunting led to their extinction ~4,000 yrs ago.
- Reviving mammoth-like elephants could restore Arctic ecosystems & slow down permafrost thawing.
Answer: (a) CRISPR-Cas9 system; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- Genetically modified “woolly mice” have been created by editing genes to mimic the cold-resistant traits of woolly mammoths.
- CRISPR-Cas9 system was used to modify DNA precisely. Scientists analysed mammoth and Asian elephant genomes to identify cold-resistant gene variants.
- Woolly Mammoths
- Scientific Name: Mammuthus primigenius
- Habitat: Cold tundra regions of Eurasia and North America during the Ice Age.
- Physical Adaptations: Thick woolly coat, fat layer for insulation, and small ears to minimise heat loss.
- Diet & Behavior: Lived in herds and fed on grass and shrubs.
- Extinction Causes: Climate change, habitat loss & human hunting led to their extinction ~4,000 yrs ago.
- Reviving mammoth-like elephants could restore Arctic ecosystems & slow down permafrost thawing.
Answer: (a) CRISPR-Cas9 system; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Species – Discovery} Consider the following statements regarding the newly discovered soil-dwelling nematode Crassolabium dhritiae:
- Crassolabium dhritiae was discovered in the Himalayan biogeographic zone of India.
- The species was named after Dr. Dhriti Banerjee, Director of the Zoological Survey of India.
- Crassolabium dhritiae is characterized by a short, thick body and a large lip region.
- The discovery of Crassolabium dhritiae increases the known species of Crassolabium to 50 globally, with 9 species found in India.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Scientists from Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have discovered a species of soil-dwelling nematode Crassolabium dhritiae.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was discovered in ‘deccan peninsula biogeographic zone of Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is named in the honour of Dr Dhriti Banerjee, Director of the ZSI, in recognition of her outstanding contributions to zoology and taxonomic research.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is characterised by its medium-sized, slender body, rounded lip region, long pharynx and certain specific features in its female reproductive system and a distinct tail shape.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- It brings the total number of known Crassolabium species worldwide to 39, with nine in India.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- Scientists from Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have discovered a species of soil-dwelling nematode Crassolabium dhritiae.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was discovered in ‘deccan peninsula biogeographic zone of Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is named in the honour of Dr Dhriti Banerjee, Director of the ZSI, in recognition of her outstanding contributions to zoology and taxonomic research.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is characterised by its medium-sized, slender body, rounded lip region, long pharynx and certain specific features in its female reproductive system and a distinct tail shape.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- It brings the total number of known Crassolabium species worldwide to 39, with nine in India.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- Scientists from Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have discovered a species of soil-dwelling nematode Crassolabium dhritiae.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- It was discovered in ‘deccan peninsula biogeographic zone of Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
Statement 2 is correct
- It is named in the honour of Dr Dhriti Banerjee, Director of the ZSI, in recognition of her outstanding contributions to zoology and taxonomic research.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is characterised by its medium-sized, slender body, rounded lip region, long pharynx and certain specific features in its female reproductive system and a distinct tail shape.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- It brings the total number of known Crassolabium species worldwide to 39, with nine in India.
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – In News} Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Doomsday Clock?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Doomsday Clock: It is a design that warns the public about how close we are to destroying our world with dangerous technologies of our own making.
- It is a metaphor, a reminder of the perils we must address if we are to survive on the planet.
- Created By: Bulletin of Atomic Scientists in 1947 to assess the probability of destruction of the world in a nuclear holocaust.
- Reimagined By: Graphic designer Michael Bierut in 2007.
- Until 1973: Movement of the Clock hand was controlled by Bulletin editor Eugene Rabinowitch.
- 2008: The Science and Security Board, made up of scientists and other experts with deep knowledge of nuclear technology and climate science, was set, which resets the clock as necessary.
- First set at 7 minutes to midnight in 1947, the Bulletin has reset the minute hand on the Doomsday Clock 26 times since its debut in 1947.
- Clock currently stands at 89 seconds to midnight this is the closest that the Clock has ever been to the metaphorical apocalypse.
Answer: (b) To serve as a reminder of the threat of global destruction from human-made technologies like nuclear weapons; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Doomsday Clock: It is a design that warns the public about how close we are to destroying our world with dangerous technologies of our own making.
- It is a metaphor, a reminder of the perils we must address if we are to survive on the planet.
- Created By: Bulletin of Atomic Scientists in 1947 to assess the probability of destruction of the world in a nuclear holocaust.
- Reimagined By: Graphic designer Michael Bierut in 2007.
- Until 1973: Movement of the Clock hand was controlled by Bulletin editor Eugene Rabinowitch.
- 2008: The Science and Security Board, made up of scientists and other experts with deep knowledge of nuclear technology and climate science, was set, which resets the clock as necessary.
- First set at 7 minutes to midnight in 1947, the Bulletin has reset the minute hand on the Doomsday Clock 26 times since its debut in 1947.
- Clock currently stands at 89 seconds to midnight this is the closest that the Clock has ever been to the metaphorical apocalypse.
Answer: (b) To serve as a reminder of the threat of global destruction from human-made technologies like nuclear weapons; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Doomsday Clock: It is a design that warns the public about how close we are to destroying our world with dangerous technologies of our own making.
- It is a metaphor, a reminder of the perils we must address if we are to survive on the planet.
- Created By: Bulletin of Atomic Scientists in 1947 to assess the probability of destruction of the world in a nuclear holocaust.
- Reimagined By: Graphic designer Michael Bierut in 2007.
- Until 1973: Movement of the Clock hand was controlled by Bulletin editor Eugene Rabinowitch.
- 2008: The Science and Security Board, made up of scientists and other experts with deep knowledge of nuclear technology and climate science, was set, which resets the clock as necessary.
- First set at 7 minutes to midnight in 1947, the Bulletin has reset the minute hand on the Doomsday Clock 26 times since its debut in 1947.
- Clock currently stands at 89 seconds to midnight this is the closest that the Clock has ever been to the metaphorical apocalypse.
Answer: (b) To serve as a reminder of the threat of global destruction from human-made technologies like nuclear weapons; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {S&T – ISRO} With reference to the SE2000 semi-cryogenic engine, consider the following statements:
- The Power Head Test Article (PHTA) is a key precursor test in the semi-cryogenic engine development.
- The SE2000 semi-cryogenic engine uses Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) and Kerosene as propellants.
- The SE2000 engine provides an enhanced thrust of 2,000 kiloNewtons (kN), enabling the launch of heavier payloads.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Power Head Test Article (PHTA):
- Significance: Key precursor test in semi-cryogenic engine development.
- Purpose: Validates the performance of key engine subsystems, including gas generator, turbo pumps, pre-burner, and control components.
Statement 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- Semi-Cryogenic Engine (SE2000):
- Propellant: Uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) & kerosene. More efficient and storable than cryogenic en-gines.
- Thrust: Provides an enhanced thrust of 2,000 kiloNewtons (kN), enabling heavier payloads.
- Advantages: High-density impulse, less toxic, cost-effective and easier to handle compared to cryo-genic engines using liquid hydrogen.
- Role in Launch Vehicles: Essential for first-stage boosters in heavy-lift missions like Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Power Head Test Article (PHTA):
- Significance: Key precursor test in semi-cryogenic engine development.
- Purpose: Validates the performance of key engine subsystems, including gas generator, turbo pumps, pre-burner, and control components.
Statement 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- Semi-Cryogenic Engine (SE2000):
- Propellant: Uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) & kerosene. More efficient and storable than cryogenic en-gines.
- Thrust: Provides an enhanced thrust of 2,000 kiloNewtons (kN), enabling heavier payloads.
- Advantages: High-density impulse, less toxic, cost-effective and easier to handle compared to cryo-genic engines using liquid hydrogen.
- Role in Launch Vehicles: Essential for first-stage boosters in heavy-lift missions like Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Power Head Test Article (PHTA):
- Significance: Key precursor test in semi-cryogenic engine development.
- Purpose: Validates the performance of key engine subsystems, including gas generator, turbo pumps, pre-burner, and control components.
Statement 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- Semi-Cryogenic Engine (SE2000):
- Propellant: Uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) & kerosene. More efficient and storable than cryogenic en-gines.
- Thrust: Provides an enhanced thrust of 2,000 kiloNewtons (kN), enabling heavier payloads.
- Advantages: High-density impulse, less toxic, cost-effective and easier to handle compared to cryo-genic engines using liquid hydrogen.
- Role in Launch Vehicles: Essential for first-stage boosters in heavy-lift missions like Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Geo – PG – Climatology} Consider the following conditions:
- Large sea surface with temperatures higher than 27°C
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex
- High variations in the vertical wind speed
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level cyclonic circulation
- Upper divergence above the sea level system
How many of the conditions listed above are favorable for forming a tropical cyclone?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Tropical Cyclone means a rapidly rotating storm originating over tropical or subtropical oceans, characterized by violent winds, torrential rain, and thunderstorms.
- This is caused by low-pressure systems over warm sea waters, causing moist air to rise and spin due to Earth’s rotation.
- Classified as a ‘Tropical Cyclone’ when wind speeds exceed 63 kph (World Meteorological Organization).
- Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation
- Large sea surface with temperatures higher than 27° C,
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex,
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
- Upper divergence above the sea level system.
Answer: (c) Only four; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Tropical Cyclone means a rapidly rotating storm originating over tropical or subtropical oceans, characterized by violent winds, torrential rain, and thunderstorms.
- This is caused by low-pressure systems over warm sea waters, causing moist air to rise and spin due to Earth’s rotation.
- Classified as a ‘Tropical Cyclone’ when wind speeds exceed 63 kph (World Meteorological Organization).
- Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation
- Large sea surface with temperatures higher than 27° C,
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex,
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
- Upper divergence above the sea level system.
Answer: (c) Only four; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Tropical Cyclone means a rapidly rotating storm originating over tropical or subtropical oceans, characterized by violent winds, torrential rain, and thunderstorms.
- This is caused by low-pressure systems over warm sea waters, causing moist air to rise and spin due to Earth’s rotation.
- Classified as a ‘Tropical Cyclone’ when wind speeds exceed 63 kph (World Meteorological Organization).
- Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation
- Large sea surface with temperatures higher than 27° C,
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex,
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
- Upper divergence above the sea level system.
Answer: (c) Only four; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Envi – Conservation} Which of the following statements regarding the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is incorrect
- About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- Highest Wildlife Advisory Body: Established under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Reconstituted in 2022: Replaced the Indian Board for Wildlife (1952).
- Composition: 47 members, including the PM (Chairperson), MoEFCC Minister (Vice-Chairperson), army chief, bureaucrats, MPs, NGOs, and environmentalists.
- Standing Committee: Reviews projects affecting wildlife habitats and protected areas.
- Functions of NBWL
- Helps Build a Wildlife Conservation Policy: Advises the Central Government on conservation strategies.
- Approvals in Protected Areas (PA): Clearance for development projects inside PAs and Tiger Reserves.
- Boundary Alterations: No changes in PA boundaries can take place without NBWL recommendation.
- Tourism Regulation: Approves eco-tourism and infrastructure in protected areas.
- Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation: Develop strategies for reducing conflicts.
- Wildlife Research: Supports scientific research, AI-based wildlife tracking, and disease monitoring.
Answer: (d) The Board is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is incorrect
- About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- Highest Wildlife Advisory Body: Established under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Reconstituted in 2022: Replaced the Indian Board for Wildlife (1952).
- Composition: 47 members, including the PM (Chairperson), MoEFCC Minister (Vice-Chairperson), army chief, bureaucrats, MPs, NGOs, and environmentalists.
- Standing Committee: Reviews projects affecting wildlife habitats and protected areas.
- Functions of NBWL
- Helps Build a Wildlife Conservation Policy: Advises the Central Government on conservation strategies.
- Approvals in Protected Areas (PA): Clearance for development projects inside PAs and Tiger Reserves.
- Boundary Alterations: No changes in PA boundaries can take place without NBWL recommendation.
- Tourism Regulation: Approves eco-tourism and infrastructure in protected areas.
- Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation: Develop strategies for reducing conflicts.
- Wildlife Research: Supports scientific research, AI-based wildlife tracking, and disease monitoring.
Answer: (d) The Board is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is incorrect
- About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
- Highest Wildlife Advisory Body: Established under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Reconstituted in 2022: Replaced the Indian Board for Wildlife (1952).
- Composition: 47 members, including the PM (Chairperson), MoEFCC Minister (Vice-Chairperson), army chief, bureaucrats, MPs, NGOs, and environmentalists.
- Standing Committee: Reviews projects affecting wildlife habitats and protected areas.
- Functions of NBWL
- Helps Build a Wildlife Conservation Policy: Advises the Central Government on conservation strategies.
- Approvals in Protected Areas (PA): Clearance for development projects inside PAs and Tiger Reserves.
- Boundary Alterations: No changes in PA boundaries can take place without NBWL recommendation.
- Tourism Regulation: Approves eco-tourism and infrastructure in protected areas.
- Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation: Develop strategies for reducing conflicts.
- Wildlife Research: Supports scientific research, AI-based wildlife tracking, and disease monitoring.
Answer: (d) The Board is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Polity – IC – FRs} Consider the following provisions:
- Special courts established for specific categories of offenses
- Legal immunities granted to certain authorities
- Directive Principles overriding Article 14 under Article 31C
- Applicability of Article 14 to foreign nationals
How many of the provisions listed above are recognized as exceptions to the right to equality under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all individuals, including foreigners.
- Exceptions to Article 14
- Special Courts for Classes of Offenses: Courts for economic offences, sexual assault cases, etc., are valid as they deal with a specific category rather than an individual case.
- Legal Immunities: The President, Governors, foreign diplomats, and UN officials have limited immunity under Articles 361 and 361A.
- Directive Principles Override: Article 31C permits laws enforcing certain DPSPs to override Article 14.
- Article 14 applies to all persons, including foreign nationals within Indian territory.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all individuals, including foreigners.
- Exceptions to Article 14
- Special Courts for Classes of Offenses: Courts for economic offences, sexual assault cases, etc., are valid as they deal with a specific category rather than an individual case.
- Legal Immunities: The President, Governors, foreign diplomats, and UN officials have limited immunity under Articles 361 and 361A.
- Directive Principles Override: Article 31C permits laws enforcing certain DPSPs to override Article 14.
- Article 14 applies to all persons, including foreign nationals within Indian territory.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all individuals, including foreigners.
- Exceptions to Article 14
- Special Courts for Classes of Offenses: Courts for economic offences, sexual assault cases, etc., are valid as they deal with a specific category rather than an individual case.
- Legal Immunities: The President, Governors, foreign diplomats, and UN officials have limited immunity under Articles 361 and 361A.
- Directive Principles Override: Article 31C permits laws enforcing certain DPSPs to override Article 14.
- Article 14 applies to all persons, including foreign nationals within Indian territory.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Social Sector – Health – Diseases} Consider the following statements about a disease:
- It is a chronic autoimmune disorder that causes depigmented white patches due to immune system attacks on melanocytes.
- The condition commonly begins on the hands, forearms, feet, and face, and may also affect hair and the inside of the mouth.
- It has two peak onset periods, one in adolescence and another between 40-50 years of age.
- In India, its prevalence ranges from 0.25% to 4% in dermatology outpatients, with higher rates in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- It is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular and endocrine disorders in some patients.
Identify the disorder based on the clues provided above:
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Vitiligo is a chronic autoimmune disorder causing depigmented white patches due to immune system attacks on melanocytes (cells that produce melanin, the pigment that gives color to skin, hair, and eyes).
- Affected Areas: Commonly starts on hands, forearms, feet & face; can affect hair & the inside of mouth.
- Progression: Patches expand over time, with two peak onsets, in adolescence & between 40-50 yrs.
- Impact: Primarily cosmetic but leads to psychological distress, self-confidence issues & social stigma.
- Prevalence: Affects 0.5% to 2% of the population; more visible in darker skin tones. In India prevalence ranges from 0.25% to 4% in dermatology outpatients, reaching 8.8% in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- Health Risks: Associated with increased cardiovascular risk and endocrine disorders in some patients.
Answer: (c) Vitiligo; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Vitiligo is a chronic autoimmune disorder causing depigmented white patches due to immune system attacks on melanocytes (cells that produce melanin, the pigment that gives color to skin, hair, and eyes).
- Affected Areas: Commonly starts on hands, forearms, feet & face; can affect hair & the inside of mouth.
- Progression: Patches expand over time, with two peak onsets, in adolescence & between 40-50 yrs.
- Impact: Primarily cosmetic but leads to psychological distress, self-confidence issues & social stigma.
- Prevalence: Affects 0.5% to 2% of the population; more visible in darker skin tones. In India prevalence ranges from 0.25% to 4% in dermatology outpatients, reaching 8.8% in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- Health Risks: Associated with increased cardiovascular risk and endocrine disorders in some patients.
Answer: (c) Vitiligo; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- Vitiligo is a chronic autoimmune disorder causing depigmented white patches due to immune system attacks on melanocytes (cells that produce melanin, the pigment that gives color to skin, hair, and eyes).
- Affected Areas: Commonly starts on hands, forearms, feet & face; can affect hair & the inside of mouth.
- Progression: Patches expand over time, with two peak onsets, in adolescence & between 40-50 yrs.
- Impact: Primarily cosmetic but leads to psychological distress, self-confidence issues & social stigma.
- Prevalence: Affects 0.5% to 2% of the population; more visible in darker skin tones. In India prevalence ranges from 0.25% to 4% in dermatology outpatients, reaching 8.8% in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- Health Risks: Associated with increased cardiovascular risk and endocrine disorders in some patients.
Answer: (c) Vitiligo; Difficulty Level: Hard
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