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Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – June 28 2024 "
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q1. {Polity – IC – Parliament} Consider the following statements:
The Deputy Speaker possesses equivalent powers to the Speaker when chairing sessions of the House, and rulings made by the Deputy Speaker are not subject to appeal.
As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Speaker and Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the President may fix.
The Tenth Schedule allows a Speaker to resign from their political party on being elected to their office, it has never been done by any Speaker till date.
Lok Sabha Speaker need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Deputy Speaker has the same general powers as the Speaker when he/she presides over the House.
S/He performs the duties of the Speaker when he/she is absent or the post is vacant.
In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
S/He presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
While presiding over the House, s/he cannot vote in the first instance. He can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
Statement 2 is not correct
The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
While the Tenth Scheduleallows a Speaker to resign from their political party on being elected to their office, it has never been done by any Speaker till date.
Statement 4 is not correct
The Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House.
He is eligible for re-election.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Deputy Speaker has the same general powers as the Speaker when he/she presides over the House.
S/He performs the duties of the Speaker when he/she is absent or the post is vacant.
In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
S/He presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
While presiding over the House, s/he cannot vote in the first instance. He can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
Statement 2 is not correct
The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
While the Tenth Scheduleallows a Speaker to resign from their political party on being elected to their office, it has never been done by any Speaker till date.
Statement 4 is not correct
The Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House.
He is eligible for re-election.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
The Deputy Speaker has the same general powers as the Speaker when he/she presides over the House.
S/He performs the duties of the Speaker when he/she is absent or the post is vacant.
In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
S/He presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
While presiding over the House, s/he cannot vote in the first instance. He can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
Statement 2 is not correct
The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
Statement 3 is correct
While the Tenth Scheduleallows a Speaker to resign from their political party on being elected to their office, it has never been done by any Speaker till date.
Statement 4 is not correct
The Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House.
He is eligible for re-election.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q2. {Polity – IC – Parliament} Consider the following statements about the Joint Sitting of Parliament:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses, with the Deputy Speaker stepping in if the Speaker is absent. If both are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
It is applicable to ordinary and financial bills, but not to constitutional amendment bills.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, it must be passed by an absolute majority of the Houses.
The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of a joint sitting of Parliament, but does not have the right to vote.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
A joint sitting is an extraordinary mechanism provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over a bill’s passage.
A deadlock occurs in any of the following situations after a bill is passed by one House and sent to the other:
If the bill is rejected by the other House.
If there is a final disagreement on amendments to the bill.
If more than six months have passed since the other House received the bill without passing it.
Statement 1 is correct
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses, with the Deputy Speaker stepping in if the Speaker is absent. If both are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting because he is not a member of either House of Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct
It should be noted that the provision for a joint sitting applies only to ordinary bills or financial bills, and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha holds overriding powers, whereas a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed separately by each House.
Statement 3 is not correct
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, it must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
Statement 4 is correct
The Attorney General of India has the privilege to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting, as well as any parliamentary committee where he is a member, but he does not possess the right to vote.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
A joint sitting is an extraordinary mechanism provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over a bill’s passage.
A deadlock occurs in any of the following situations after a bill is passed by one House and sent to the other:
If the bill is rejected by the other House.
If there is a final disagreement on amendments to the bill.
If more than six months have passed since the other House received the bill without passing it.
Statement 1 is correct
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses, with the Deputy Speaker stepping in if the Speaker is absent. If both are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting because he is not a member of either House of Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct
It should be noted that the provision for a joint sitting applies only to ordinary bills or financial bills, and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha holds overriding powers, whereas a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed separately by each House.
Statement 3 is not correct
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, it must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
Statement 4 is correct
The Attorney General of India has the privilege to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting, as well as any parliamentary committee where he is a member, but he does not possess the right to vote.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
A joint sitting is an extraordinary mechanism provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over a bill’s passage.
A deadlock occurs in any of the following situations after a bill is passed by one House and sent to the other:
If the bill is rejected by the other House.
If there is a final disagreement on amendments to the bill.
If more than six months have passed since the other House received the bill without passing it.
Statement 1 is correct
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses, with the Deputy Speaker stepping in if the Speaker is absent. If both are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting because he is not a member of either House of Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct
It should be noted that the provision for a joint sitting applies only to ordinary bills or financial bills, and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha holds overriding powers, whereas a Constitutional amendment bill must be passed separately by each House.
Statement 3 is not correct
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, it must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
Statement 4 is correct
The Attorney General of India has the privilege to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting, as well as any parliamentary committee where he is a member, but he does not possess the right to vote.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – In News} Consider the following statements regarding Bannerghatta National Park:
Bannerghatta National Park serves as a wildlife corridor connecting Biligirirangana Hills and Sathyamangalam forest.
The vegetation in Bannerghatta National Park primarily consists of moist deciduous forest and scrubland.
Recently, India’s largest leopard safari was inaugurated at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP).
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 3 is correct
South India’s first and the country’s largest leopard safari was inaugurated at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP) in Karnataka.
Statement 1 is correct
Bannerghatta National Park is part of a wildlife corridor for elephants which connects Biligirirangana Hills and Sathyamangalam forest.
A portion of the National Park is converted into Bannerghatta Biological Park.
The Biological Park has a zoo, a butterfly enclosure, a snake house and a safari park. It shelters mammals such as Indian tigers and lions.
Statement 2 is correct
The vegetation in Bannerghatta National Park primarily consists of moist deciduous forestand scrubland.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 3 is correct
South India’s first and the country’s largest leopard safari was inaugurated at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP) in Karnataka.
Statement 1 is correct
Bannerghatta National Park is part of a wildlife corridor for elephants which connects Biligirirangana Hills and Sathyamangalam forest.
A portion of the National Park is converted into Bannerghatta Biological Park.
The Biological Park has a zoo, a butterfly enclosure, a snake house and a safari park. It shelters mammals such as Indian tigers and lions.
Statement 2 is correct
The vegetation in Bannerghatta National Park primarily consists of moist deciduous forestand scrubland.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 3 is correct
South India’s first and the country’s largest leopard safari was inaugurated at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP) in Karnataka.
Statement 1 is correct
Bannerghatta National Park is part of a wildlife corridor for elephants which connects Biligirirangana Hills and Sathyamangalam forest.
A portion of the National Park is converted into Bannerghatta Biological Park.
The Biological Park has a zoo, a butterfly enclosure, a snake house and a safari park. It shelters mammals such as Indian tigers and lions.
Statement 2 is correct
The vegetation in Bannerghatta National Park primarily consists of moist deciduous forestand scrubland.
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Hard
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – Bodies} Which one of these is not a member of the committee responsible for appointing the CBI Director?
Correct
Explanation
CBI is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
It is the nodal Indian agency that coordinates investigations on behalf of Interpol Member countries.
It functions under the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievance.
The Centre appoints the director based on the recommendation of a search committee comprising:
Prime Minister as the chairperson
CJI (or SC judge) and
Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: (d) Minister of Home Affairs; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
CBI is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
It is the nodal Indian agency that coordinates investigations on behalf of Interpol Member countries.
It functions under the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievance.
The Centre appoints the director based on the recommendation of a search committee comprising:
Prime Minister as the chairperson
CJI (or SC judge) and
Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: (d) Minister of Home Affairs; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
CBI is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
It is the nodal Indian agency that coordinates investigations on behalf of Interpol Member countries.
It functions under the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievance.
The Centre appoints the director based on the recommendation of a search committee comprising:
Prime Minister as the chairperson
CJI (or SC judge) and
Leader of the Opposition.
Answer: (d) Minister of Home Affairs; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – In News} How many of the following criteria are essential for granting Miniratna Category-I status to Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
Must have achieved profitability in the last three consecutive years.
Need to demonstrate a pre-tax profit of Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the three years.
Must maintain a positive net worth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
All criteria are essential
Recently, the Central Government announced the grant of ‘Mini RATNA‘ (Category-1) status to Central Electronics Limited (CEL).
Central Electronics Limited (CEL) is a Government of India enterprise under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science & Technology.
It was established in 1974 to commercially exploit indigenous technologies developed by National Laboratories and R&D institutions in the country.
CEL is the pioneer in the country in the field of Solar Photovoltaic (SPV).
Criteria for granting Miniratna status to CPSEs Miniratna Category-I status
Must have achieved profitability in the last three consecutive years.
Need to demonstrate a pre-tax profit of Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the three years.
Must maintain a positive net worth.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
All criteria are essential
Recently, the Central Government announced the grant of ‘Mini RATNA‘ (Category-1) status to Central Electronics Limited (CEL).
Central Electronics Limited (CEL) is a Government of India enterprise under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science & Technology.
It was established in 1974 to commercially exploit indigenous technologies developed by National Laboratories and R&D institutions in the country.
CEL is the pioneer in the country in the field of Solar Photovoltaic (SPV).
Criteria for granting Miniratna status to CPSEs Miniratna Category-I status
Must have achieved profitability in the last three consecutive years.
Need to demonstrate a pre-tax profit of Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the three years.
Must maintain a positive net worth.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
All criteria are essential
Recently, the Central Government announced the grant of ‘Mini RATNA‘ (Category-1) status to Central Electronics Limited (CEL).
Central Electronics Limited (CEL) is a Government of India enterprise under the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR), Ministry of Science & Technology.
It was established in 1974 to commercially exploit indigenous technologies developed by National Laboratories and R&D institutions in the country.
CEL is the pioneer in the country in the field of Solar Photovoltaic (SPV).
Criteria for granting Miniratna status to CPSEs Miniratna Category-I status
Must have achieved profitability in the last three consecutive years.
Need to demonstrate a pre-tax profit of Rs.30 crores or more in at least one of the three years.
Must maintain a positive net worth.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Medium
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