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July 19-2024 Current Affairs MCQs
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[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – July 19 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q1. {A&C – Festivals} Consider the following pairs:
Traditions Communities - Kharchi Puja
Bhil tribe - Wari-Warkari
Sindhis - Nagoba jatara
Jain Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Kharchi Puja, an ancient traditional Hindu festival, was celebrated in Tripura.
- Festival of the 14 Gods: Fourteen gods forming the dynasty deity of the Tripuri people are worshipped.
- On the day of the puja, deities are carried by members of Chantai (royal priest) to river Saidra, then bathed in the holy water and brought back to the temple.
- It is believed that Tripura Sundari (Mother Goddess), the presiding deity of Tripura, undergoes menstruation during the Ambubachi month in June. This event is believed to have impured the earth.
- Kharchi means “cleaning of the sins”, conducted to cleanse the people’s sins and purify the earth after the menstruation period concludes.
- Originated as a tribal festival, it is now celebrated in July by both tribal and non-tribal peoples.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- It is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect dedicated to the deity Vithoba in Pandharpur, Maharashtra, and is part of the Bhakti movement.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- The Nagoba jatara, one of the largest tribal fairs in the world.
- Traditionally, a festival of Gond clan of tribes dependent on forest, it is now owned up by plain area tribals and even Hindus.
- It lasts five days and Snake God is worshipped.
Answer: (d) None of the above; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Kharchi Puja, an ancient traditional Hindu festival, was celebrated in Tripura.
- Festival of the 14 Gods: Fourteen gods forming the dynasty deity of the Tripuri people are worshipped.
- On the day of the puja, deities are carried by members of Chantai (royal priest) to river Saidra, then bathed in the holy water and brought back to the temple.
- It is believed that Tripura Sundari (Mother Goddess), the presiding deity of Tripura, undergoes menstruation during the Ambubachi month in June. This event is believed to have impured the earth.
- Kharchi means “cleaning of the sins”, conducted to cleanse the people’s sins and purify the earth after the menstruation period concludes.
- Originated as a tribal festival, it is now celebrated in July by both tribal and non-tribal peoples.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- It is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect dedicated to the deity Vithoba in Pandharpur, Maharashtra, and is part of the Bhakti movement.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- The Nagoba jatara, one of the largest tribal fairs in the world.
- Traditionally, a festival of Gond clan of tribes dependent on forest, it is now owned up by plain area tribals and even Hindus.
- It lasts five days and Snake God is worshipped.
Answer: (d) None of the above; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Kharchi Puja, an ancient traditional Hindu festival, was celebrated in Tripura.
- Festival of the 14 Gods: Fourteen gods forming the dynasty deity of the Tripuri people are worshipped.
- On the day of the puja, deities are carried by members of Chantai (royal priest) to river Saidra, then bathed in the holy water and brought back to the temple.
- It is believed that Tripura Sundari (Mother Goddess), the presiding deity of Tripura, undergoes menstruation during the Ambubachi month in June. This event is believed to have impured the earth.
- Kharchi means “cleaning of the sins”, conducted to cleanse the people’s sins and purify the earth after the menstruation period concludes.
- Originated as a tribal festival, it is now celebrated in July by both tribal and non-tribal peoples.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- It is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect dedicated to the deity Vithoba in Pandharpur, Maharashtra, and is part of the Bhakti movement.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- The Nagoba jatara, one of the largest tribal fairs in the world.
- Traditionally, a festival of Gond clan of tribes dependent on forest, it is now owned up by plain area tribals and even Hindus.
- It lasts five days and Snake God is worshipped.
Answer: (d) None of the above; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q2. {Social Sector – Education} With reference to the PM SHRI scheme, consider the following statements:
- The scheme is for existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government and state and local governments around the country.
- To join the program, states must sign a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of Education.
- The scheme’s selection process involves a “challenge mode” in which schools apply online and are evaluated based on infrastructure, teaching staff, and learning outcomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The scheme, approved in 2022, seeks to develop 14,500 schools to “showcase” the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, and be “exemplars” for other schools in their region.
- The scheme is for existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government and state and local governments around the country.
Statement 2 is correct
- A budget of Rs 27,000 crores for five years is divided in a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and the States.
- States must sign a MoU with the Ministry of Education to join the program.
Statement 3 is correct
- PM SHRI schools are selected through the “challenge mode” — schools that meet certain minimum benchmarks (including a pucca building in good condition, barrier-free access ramps, at least one toilet each for boys and girls) can apply online.
- They are evaluated on a set of parameters that include infrastructure, teaching staff, and learning outcomes.
- Schools in urban areas must score at least 70%; those in rural areas 60% to be selected.
- States are supposed to send a list of recommended schools to the Ministry, and an expert committee headed by the School Education and Literacy Secretary draws up the final list.
- Up to two schools — an elementary school and a secondary/ senior secondary school can be selected per block/ urban local body.
- States/ UTs have to work to ensure zero dropout rates in all grades within two years of implementation, comply with norms for pupil-teacher ratio, and implement “innovative pedagogy” such as activity-based, sports-based, art-based, and toy-based learning.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The scheme, approved in 2022, seeks to develop 14,500 schools to “showcase” the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, and be “exemplars” for other schools in their region.
- The scheme is for existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government and state and local governments around the country.
Statement 2 is correct
- A budget of Rs 27,000 crores for five years is divided in a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and the States.
- States must sign a MoU with the Ministry of Education to join the program.
Statement 3 is correct
- PM SHRI schools are selected through the “challenge mode” — schools that meet certain minimum benchmarks (including a pucca building in good condition, barrier-free access ramps, at least one toilet each for boys and girls) can apply online.
- They are evaluated on a set of parameters that include infrastructure, teaching staff, and learning outcomes.
- Schools in urban areas must score at least 70%; those in rural areas 60% to be selected.
- States are supposed to send a list of recommended schools to the Ministry, and an expert committee headed by the School Education and Literacy Secretary draws up the final list.
- Up to two schools — an elementary school and a secondary/ senior secondary school can be selected per block/ urban local body.
- States/ UTs have to work to ensure zero dropout rates in all grades within two years of implementation, comply with norms for pupil-teacher ratio, and implement “innovative pedagogy” such as activity-based, sports-based, art-based, and toy-based learning.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The scheme, approved in 2022, seeks to develop 14,500 schools to “showcase” the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, and be “exemplars” for other schools in their region.
- The scheme is for existing elementary, secondary, and senior secondary schools run by the central government and state and local governments around the country.
Statement 2 is correct
- A budget of Rs 27,000 crores for five years is divided in a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and the States.
- States must sign a MoU with the Ministry of Education to join the program.
Statement 3 is correct
- PM SHRI schools are selected through the “challenge mode” — schools that meet certain minimum benchmarks (including a pucca building in good condition, barrier-free access ramps, at least one toilet each for boys and girls) can apply online.
- They are evaluated on a set of parameters that include infrastructure, teaching staff, and learning outcomes.
- Schools in urban areas must score at least 70%; those in rural areas 60% to be selected.
- States are supposed to send a list of recommended schools to the Ministry, and an expert committee headed by the School Education and Literacy Secretary draws up the final list.
- Up to two schools — an elementary school and a secondary/ senior secondary school can be selected per block/ urban local body.
- States/ UTs have to work to ensure zero dropout rates in all grades within two years of implementation, comply with norms for pupil-teacher ratio, and implement “innovative pedagogy” such as activity-based, sports-based, art-based, and toy-based learning.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q3. {S&T – Tech} With reference to India’s National Quantum Mission (NQM) launched in 2023, consider the following statements:
- One of the mission’s objectives is to develop ultra-precise atomic clocks for improved communication and navigation applications.
- The NQM establish four Thematic Hubs, each specializing in distinct areas of quantum research and development.
- The mission is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2023 (budget – Rs. 6003.65 crore), aims to propel India to the forefront of quantum technology research and development.
- The mission’s advancements promise benefits in communication, healthcare, finance, and energy, impacting drug discovery, space exploration, banking security, and sustainable development.
- Objectives:
- To develop intermediate-scale quantum computers (50-1000 physical qubits) within eight years, leveraging superconducting and photonic technologies.
- To establish secure communication networks within India and internationally.
- To develop high-sensitivity magnetometers using atomic systems and ultra-precise atomic clocks for enhanced timing, communication, and navigation applications.
Statement 2 is correct
- The NQM will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) housed within leading academic and national R&D institutes. Each hub will specialise in a specific area:
- Quantum Computing
- Quantum Communication
- Quantum Sensing & Metrology
- Quantum Materials & Devices
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2023 (budget – Rs. 6003.65 crore), aims to propel India to the forefront of quantum technology research and development.
- The mission’s advancements promise benefits in communication, healthcare, finance, and energy, impacting drug discovery, space exploration, banking security, and sustainable development.
- Objectives:
- To develop intermediate-scale quantum computers (50-1000 physical qubits) within eight years, leveraging superconducting and photonic technologies.
- To establish secure communication networks within India and internationally.
- To develop high-sensitivity magnetometers using atomic systems and ultra-precise atomic clocks for enhanced timing, communication, and navigation applications.
Statement 2 is correct
- The NQM will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) housed within leading academic and national R&D institutes. Each hub will specialise in a specific area:
- Quantum Computing
- Quantum Communication
- Quantum Sensing & Metrology
- Quantum Materials & Devices
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2023 (budget – Rs. 6003.65 crore), aims to propel India to the forefront of quantum technology research and development.
- The mission’s advancements promise benefits in communication, healthcare, finance, and energy, impacting drug discovery, space exploration, banking security, and sustainable development.
- Objectives:
- To develop intermediate-scale quantum computers (50-1000 physical qubits) within eight years, leveraging superconducting and photonic technologies.
- To establish secure communication networks within India and internationally.
- To develop high-sensitivity magnetometers using atomic systems and ultra-precise atomic clocks for enhanced timing, communication, and navigation applications.
Statement 2 is correct
- The NQM will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) housed within leading academic and national R&D institutes. Each hub will specialise in a specific area:
- Quantum Computing
- Quantum Communication
- Quantum Sensing & Metrology
- Quantum Materials & Devices
Statement 3 is incorrect
- It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q4. {Governance – Laws} With reference to the Enemy Property Act of 1968 and the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), consider the following statements:
- The Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI) has ownership rights over enemy properties and may sell or lease them to a private entity.
- The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017 expanded the definition of ‘enemy subject’ and ‘enemy firm’ to include legal heirs and successors irrespective of nationality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- The Enemy Property Act of 1968 came into effect in the aftermath of the Indo-China and Indo-Pak wars in 1962 and 1965.
- The ‘enemy properties’ could be “any property that belongs to, is held or managed on behalf of an enemy, an enemy subject, or an enemy firm”.
- The word “enemy” signifies any country that has committed an act of aggression or declared war against the Union of India, and “property” is immovable assets and all negotiable instruments such as shares, debentures, and other commerce.
- The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017:
- It expanded the meaning of the terms “enemy subject” and “enemy firm” to include an enemy’s legal heir and successor irrespective of nationality.
- Once a property is declared ‘enemy property’, it remains so even if the enemy/enemy subject/enemy firm/heir ceases to be an enemy due to death, extinction, winding up of business or change of nationality.
- After the Act, the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI) took over the enemy properties and has been managing them since then.
- CEPI may sell or lease the properties to the state government for public use.
- The CEPI does not acquire ownership of the properties.
- The enemy properties vest in the Custodian as a trustee only for managing and administrating such properties.
- The Union of India has no ownership rights of such properties.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- The Enemy Property Act of 1968 came into effect in the aftermath of the Indo-China and Indo-Pak wars in 1962 and 1965.
- The ‘enemy properties’ could be “any property that belongs to, is held or managed on behalf of an enemy, an enemy subject, or an enemy firm”.
- The word “enemy” signifies any country that has committed an act of aggression or declared war against the Union of India, and “property” is immovable assets and all negotiable instruments such as shares, debentures, and other commerce.
- The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017:
- It expanded the meaning of the terms “enemy subject” and “enemy firm” to include an enemy’s legal heir and successor irrespective of nationality.
- Once a property is declared ‘enemy property’, it remains so even if the enemy/enemy subject/enemy firm/heir ceases to be an enemy due to death, extinction, winding up of business or change of nationality.
- After the Act, the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI) took over the enemy properties and has been managing them since then.
- CEPI may sell or lease the properties to the state government for public use.
- The CEPI does not acquire ownership of the properties.
- The enemy properties vest in the Custodian as a trustee only for managing and administrating such properties.
- The Union of India has no ownership rights of such properties.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- The Enemy Property Act of 1968 came into effect in the aftermath of the Indo-China and Indo-Pak wars in 1962 and 1965.
- The ‘enemy properties’ could be “any property that belongs to, is held or managed on behalf of an enemy, an enemy subject, or an enemy firm”.
- The word “enemy” signifies any country that has committed an act of aggression or declared war against the Union of India, and “property” is immovable assets and all negotiable instruments such as shares, debentures, and other commerce.
- The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017:
- It expanded the meaning of the terms “enemy subject” and “enemy firm” to include an enemy’s legal heir and successor irrespective of nationality.
- Once a property is declared ‘enemy property’, it remains so even if the enemy/enemy subject/enemy firm/heir ceases to be an enemy due to death, extinction, winding up of business or change of nationality.
- After the Act, the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI) took over the enemy properties and has been managing them since then.
- CEPI may sell or lease the properties to the state government for public use.
- The CEPI does not acquire ownership of the properties.
- The enemy properties vest in the Custodian as a trustee only for managing and administrating such properties.
- The Union of India has no ownership rights of such properties.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q5. {S&T– Tech} Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR):
- It is an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- The centre is located in Mumbai and is involved in mapping India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and continental shelf margins.
- It is the nodal agency for planning and executing India’s scientific research expeditions in the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- NCPOR recently signed a contract with a Defense PSU to construct an Indigenous Ocean Research Vessel for exploring deep oceans.
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), established in 1998, and serves as India’s leading R&D institution for research in the Polar and Southern Ocean region
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It also undertakes research on some of the country’s strategically vital projects like mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), continental shelf margins and the Deep Ocean Mission.
- NCPOR is located in Goa.
Statement 3 is correct
- Nodal agency for the Indian Arctic & Antarctic Programmes: National Centre for Policy and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- NCPOR recently signed a contract with a Defense PSU to construct an Indigenous Ocean Research Vessel for exploring deep oceans.
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), established in 1998, and serves as India’s leading R&D institution for research in the Polar and Southern Ocean region
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It also undertakes research on some of the country’s strategically vital projects like mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), continental shelf margins and the Deep Ocean Mission.
- NCPOR is located in Goa.
Statement 3 is correct
- Nodal agency for the Indian Arctic & Antarctic Programmes: National Centre for Policy and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- NCPOR recently signed a contract with a Defense PSU to construct an Indigenous Ocean Research Vessel for exploring deep oceans.
Statement 1 is correct
- It is an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), established in 1998, and serves as India’s leading R&D institution for research in the Polar and Southern Ocean region
Statement 2 is incorrect
- It also undertakes research on some of the country’s strategically vital projects like mapping of Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), continental shelf margins and the Deep Ocean Mission.
- NCPOR is located in Goa.
Statement 3 is correct
- Nodal agency for the Indian Arctic & Antarctic Programmes: National Centre for Policy and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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