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Your results are here!! for" [Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – January 16 2025 "
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {IE – Securities} Consider the following statements regarding Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) bonds:
ZCZP bonds are securities issued by non-profit organisations (NPOs) listed on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE).
The bonds mature either after 12 months or once the funded project concludes.
The funds raised are considered investments and are refundable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
SEBI allowed the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) bonds on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE), facilitating social enterprises to raise funds for social welfare initiatives.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
ZCZP bonds are securities issued bynon-profit organisations (NPOs)listed on SSE.
These bonds neither pay interestnor return the principal amount.
The bonds mature either after 12 months or once the fundedproject concludes.
Statements 3 is incorrect
The funds raised are considered donations, not investments, and are non-refundable.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
SEBI allowed the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) bonds on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE), facilitating social enterprises to raise funds for social welfare initiatives.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
ZCZP bonds are securities issued bynon-profit organisations (NPOs)listed on SSE.
These bonds neither pay interestnor return the principal amount.
The bonds mature either after 12 months or once the fundedproject concludes.
Statements 3 is incorrect
The funds raised are considered donations, not investments, and are non-refundable.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
SEBI allowed the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) bonds on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE), facilitating social enterprises to raise funds for social welfare initiatives.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
ZCZP bonds are securities issued bynon-profit organisations (NPOs)listed on SSE.
These bonds neither pay interestnor return the principal amount.
The bonds mature either after 12 months or once the fundedproject concludes.
Statements 3 is incorrect
The funds raised are considered donations, not investments, and are non-refundable.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {IR – India-US} Consider the following statements regarding the US administration’s new AI hardware export regulation framework:
The US administration’s new AI hardware export regulation framework consists of five tiers.
India is placed in the first tier which has no significant export restrictions on AI chips and GPUs.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
The US administration’s new export regulation framework placesIndiain thesecond tier, limiting its access to high-powered AI hardware like GPUs, potentially impacting its AI plans.
Three-Tier Framework for AI Hardware Export Restrictions:
Tier 1– Closest US Allies.
Tier 2– Majority of Countries (Including India).
Tier 3- Countries of Concern.
Validated End User (GVEU): A Special Provision:
Indian companies with this authorisation can use exported AI technology for civilian and military purposes, excluding nuclear use.
Chinese companies can only use the technology for civilian applications.
India and China are the only countries with this special provision.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
The US administration’s new export regulation framework placesIndiain thesecond tier, limiting its access to high-powered AI hardware like GPUs, potentially impacting its AI plans.
Three-Tier Framework for AI Hardware Export Restrictions:
Tier 1– Closest US Allies.
Tier 2– Majority of Countries (Including India).
Tier 3- Countries of Concern.
Validated End User (GVEU): A Special Provision:
Indian companies with this authorisation can use exported AI technology for civilian and military purposes, excluding nuclear use.
Chinese companies can only use the technology for civilian applications.
India and China are the only countries with this special provision.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
The US administration’s new export regulation framework placesIndiain thesecond tier, limiting its access to high-powered AI hardware like GPUs, potentially impacting its AI plans.
Three-Tier Framework for AI Hardware Export Restrictions:
Tier 1– Closest US Allies.
Tier 2– Majority of Countries (Including India).
Tier 3- Countries of Concern.
Validated End User (GVEU): A Special Provision:
Indian companies with this authorisation can use exported AI technology for civilian and military purposes, excluding nuclear use.
Chinese companies can only use the technology for civilian applications.
India and China are the only countries with this special provision.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {A&C – Architecture} Recently, the World Monuments Watch (WMW) 2025 was unveiled. In this context, consider the following statements:
World Monuments Watch (WMW) was launched in 1996 by the UNESCO.
It is an annual program highlighting endangered heritage sites to raise global awareness for their preservation.
Only two heritage sites from India has been included in World Monuments Watch (WMW) 2025.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
It is a biennialprogram highlighting endangered heritage sites to raise global awareness for their preservation.
Statement 3 is correct
The Musi River Historic Buildings in Hyderabad and Bhuj’s Historic Water Infrastructure have been included in the 2025 World Monuments Watch, highlighting their vulnerability to environmental and developmental changes.
It is a biennialprogram highlighting endangered heritage sites to raise global awareness for their preservation.
Statement 3 is correct
The Musi River Historic Buildings in Hyderabad and Bhuj’s Historic Water Infrastructure have been included in the 2025 World Monuments Watch, highlighting their vulnerability to environmental and developmental changes.
It is a biennialprogram highlighting endangered heritage sites to raise global awareness for their preservation.
Statement 3 is correct
The Musi River Historic Buildings in Hyderabad and Bhuj’s Historic Water Infrastructure have been included in the 2025 World Monuments Watch, highlighting their vulnerability to environmental and developmental changes.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Hard
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Polity – Laws} Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A wife’s claim for maintenance is not automatically denied due to her refusal to comply with a restitution decree.
Statement-II: Maintenance and restitution of conjugal rights are independent legal matters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
The Supreme Court ruled that maintenance and restitution of conjugal rights are independent legal matters. A wife can claim maintenance despite non-compliance with the conjugal rights decree.
Legality of Restitution of Conjugal Rights:
Section 9, Hindu Marriage Act (HMA), 1955: Allows a spouse to seek a court decree to restore the other spouse to their matrimonial society if withdrawn without reasonable excuse.
Intended to protect traditional family unity but criticised for its relevance in an egalitarian society.
SC Observations:
SC Ruling in the Present Case:
Restored maintenance order, emphasising the independent nature of conjugal rights & maintenance.
Conjugal rights findings were given undue weightage by the Jharkhand HC.
Maintenance vs. Conjugal Rights:
These are separate legal issues. Refusal to comply with a restitution decree doesn’t automatically disqualify the wife from maintenance.
Reference to prior judgments reinforced the dilution of Section 125(4) CrPC restrictions.
Case-Specific Considerations:
Each case must be assessed on individual facts.
Just cause, such as alleged ill-treatment, can justify a wife’s refusal to return to the matrimonial home.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
The Supreme Court ruled that maintenance and restitution of conjugal rights are independent legal matters. A wife can claim maintenance despite non-compliance with the conjugal rights decree.
Legality of Restitution of Conjugal Rights:
Section 9, Hindu Marriage Act (HMA), 1955: Allows a spouse to seek a court decree to restore the other spouse to their matrimonial society if withdrawn without reasonable excuse.
Intended to protect traditional family unity but criticised for its relevance in an egalitarian society.
SC Observations:
SC Ruling in the Present Case:
Restored maintenance order, emphasising the independent nature of conjugal rights & maintenance.
Conjugal rights findings were given undue weightage by the Jharkhand HC.
Maintenance vs. Conjugal Rights:
These are separate legal issues. Refusal to comply with a restitution decree doesn’t automatically disqualify the wife from maintenance.
Reference to prior judgments reinforced the dilution of Section 125(4) CrPC restrictions.
Case-Specific Considerations:
Each case must be assessed on individual facts.
Just cause, such as alleged ill-treatment, can justify a wife’s refusal to return to the matrimonial home.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
The Supreme Court ruled that maintenance and restitution of conjugal rights are independent legal matters. A wife can claim maintenance despite non-compliance with the conjugal rights decree.
Legality of Restitution of Conjugal Rights:
Section 9, Hindu Marriage Act (HMA), 1955: Allows a spouse to seek a court decree to restore the other spouse to their matrimonial society if withdrawn without reasonable excuse.
Intended to protect traditional family unity but criticised for its relevance in an egalitarian society.
SC Observations:
SC Ruling in the Present Case:
Restored maintenance order, emphasising the independent nature of conjugal rights & maintenance.
Conjugal rights findings were given undue weightage by the Jharkhand HC.
Maintenance vs. Conjugal Rights:
These are separate legal issues. Refusal to comply with a restitution decree doesn’t automatically disqualify the wife from maintenance.
Reference to prior judgments reinforced the dilution of Section 125(4) CrPC restrictions.
Case-Specific Considerations:
Each case must be assessed on individual facts.
Just cause, such as alleged ill-treatment, can justify a wife’s refusal to return to the matrimonial home.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Hard
Q6. {S&T – Defence} Consider the following statements regarding Indian Army Day:
Indian Army Day is celebrated on January 15 to commemorate the victory of Indian forces in the 1971 India-Pakistan war.
Pune will host the Indian Army Day Parade for the first time in 2025, making it the third city after Bengaluru and Lucknow to host the event.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Indian Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year to mark the appointment of Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army in 1949, replacing British General Sir Francis Butcher.
It Symbolizes India’s military autonomy post-independence.
Statement 2 is correct
Key Events and Celebrations of Indian Army Day 2025:
Location:Pune will host the Army Day Parade for the first time, making it the third city after Bengaluru (2023) and Lucknow (2024) to host the event.
Parade & Ceremonial Events: Showcase of military regiments, advanced weaponry, tanks, and missiles.
Gallantry Awards: Recognition of bravery with gallantry awards and unit citations.
Cultural Programs: Celebrates the diversity of the Indian Army & its connection to India’s rich traditions.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Indian Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year to mark the appointment of Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army in 1949, replacing British General Sir Francis Butcher.
It Symbolizes India’s military autonomy post-independence.
Statement 2 is correct
Key Events and Celebrations of Indian Army Day 2025:
Location:Pune will host the Army Day Parade for the first time, making it the third city after Bengaluru (2023) and Lucknow (2024) to host the event.
Parade & Ceremonial Events: Showcase of military regiments, advanced weaponry, tanks, and missiles.
Gallantry Awards: Recognition of bravery with gallantry awards and unit citations.
Cultural Programs: Celebrates the diversity of the Indian Army & its connection to India’s rich traditions.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Indian Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year to mark the appointment of Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa as the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army in 1949, replacing British General Sir Francis Butcher.
It Symbolizes India’s military autonomy post-independence.
Statement 2 is correct
Key Events and Celebrations of Indian Army Day 2025:
Location:Pune will host the Army Day Parade for the first time, making it the third city after Bengaluru (2023) and Lucknow (2024) to host the event.
Parade & Ceremonial Events: Showcase of military regiments, advanced weaponry, tanks, and missiles.
Gallantry Awards: Recognition of bravery with gallantry awards and unit citations.
Cultural Programs: Celebrates the diversity of the Indian Army & its connection to India’s rich traditions.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Geo – Climatology} Consider the following statements regarding La Niña:
La Niña events are characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cold water in the central and eastern Pacific due to stronger-than-usual trade winds.
La Niña has little to no impact on weather patterns in the Atlantic region.
La Niña events can result in abnormally heavy rainfall in the southern United States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
After an El Niño event weather conditions usually return back to normal.
However, in some years the trade winds can become extremely strong and an abnormal accumulation of cold water can occur in the central and eastern Pacific. This event is called a La Niña.
Statement 2 is incorrect
La Niña actually tends to increase hurricane activity in the Atlantic.
A strong La Niña occurred in 1988 and scientists believe that it may have been responsible for the summer drought over central North America. During this period, the Atlantic Ocean has seen very active hurricane seasons in 1998 and 1999.
One of the hurricanes that developed, named Mitch, was the strongest October hurricane ever to develop in about 100 years of record keeping.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Some of the other weather effects of La Niña include:
abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia,
cool and wet winter weather in southeastern Africa, wet weather in eastern Australia,
cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United States,
winter drought in the southern United States.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
After an El Niño event weather conditions usually return back to normal.
However, in some years the trade winds can become extremely strong and an abnormal accumulation of cold water can occur in the central and eastern Pacific. This event is called a La Niña.
Statement 2 is incorrect
La Niña actually tends to increase hurricane activity in the Atlantic.
A strong La Niña occurred in 1988 and scientists believe that it may have been responsible for the summer drought over central North America. During this period, the Atlantic Ocean has seen very active hurricane seasons in 1998 and 1999.
One of the hurricanes that developed, named Mitch, was the strongest October hurricane ever to develop in about 100 years of record keeping.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Some of the other weather effects of La Niña include:
abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia,
cool and wet winter weather in southeastern Africa, wet weather in eastern Australia,
cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United States,
winter drought in the southern United States.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
After an El Niño event weather conditions usually return back to normal.
However, in some years the trade winds can become extremely strong and an abnormal accumulation of cold water can occur in the central and eastern Pacific. This event is called a La Niña.
Statement 2 is incorrect
La Niña actually tends to increase hurricane activity in the Atlantic.
A strong La Niña occurred in 1988 and scientists believe that it may have been responsible for the summer drought over central North America. During this period, the Atlantic Ocean has seen very active hurricane seasons in 1998 and 1999.
One of the hurricanes that developed, named Mitch, was the strongest October hurricane ever to develop in about 100 years of record keeping.
Statement 3 is incorrect
Some of the other weather effects of La Niña include:
abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia,
cool and wet winter weather in southeastern Africa, wet weather in eastern Australia,
cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United States,
winter drought in the southern United States.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {S&T – Defence} Consider the following pairs:
Frontline Combatants
Features
INS Surat
Multi-role, multi-mission frigate designed for deep-sea operations
INS Nilgiri
First AI-enabled warship in India
INS Vaghsheer
One of the world’s quietest diesel-electric submarines
How many of the pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
INS Surat: Advanced Guided Missile Destroyer (Project 15B):
Most advancedStealth destroyer with advanced strike capabilities & network-centric warfare features.
Equipped with surface-to-air missiles, anti-ship missiles, and torpedoes.
First AI-enabledwarship in India, enhancing operational efficiency with indigenous AI solutions.
Features state-of-the-art weapons and sensors for comprehensive defence.
Speed:Over 30 knots (56 km/h) with a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) propulsion system.
Part of Project 15B, developed by the Warship Design Bureau and built by MDL, Mumbai.
Commissioned as the fourth and final vessel of the class.
Pair 2 is incorrect
INS Nilgiri: Advanced Stealth Frigate (Project 17A):
Multi-role, multi-mission frigatedesigned for deep-sea operations in blue water.
Anti-surface, anti-air, and anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
Equipped with supersonic surface-to-surface missile system and MRSAM system; Features 76mm upgraded gun and rapid-fire close-in weapon systems.
First of seven ships in the Project 17Aclass. Built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
INS Vaghsheer: Stealth Submarine (Scorpene Class, Project 75):
One of the world’squietest diesel-electric submarines, designed for anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, armed with wire-guided torpedoes, anti-ship missiles, and advanced sonar systems.
Can undertake a variety of missions, including intelligence gathering, surveillance, and special operations.
Built in collaboration with the French Naval Group, designed under Project 75.
Commissioned as the sixth and final submarine in the Scorpene class.
Enhances India’s submarine capabilities with increased stealth and versatility.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
INS Surat: Advanced Guided Missile Destroyer (Project 15B):
Most advancedStealth destroyer with advanced strike capabilities & network-centric warfare features.
Equipped with surface-to-air missiles, anti-ship missiles, and torpedoes.
First AI-enabledwarship in India, enhancing operational efficiency with indigenous AI solutions.
Features state-of-the-art weapons and sensors for comprehensive defence.
Speed:Over 30 knots (56 km/h) with a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) propulsion system.
Part of Project 15B, developed by the Warship Design Bureau and built by MDL, Mumbai.
Commissioned as the fourth and final vessel of the class.
Pair 2 is incorrect
INS Nilgiri: Advanced Stealth Frigate (Project 17A):
Multi-role, multi-mission frigatedesigned for deep-sea operations in blue water.
Anti-surface, anti-air, and anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
Equipped with supersonic surface-to-surface missile system and MRSAM system; Features 76mm upgraded gun and rapid-fire close-in weapon systems.
First of seven ships in the Project 17Aclass. Built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
INS Vaghsheer: Stealth Submarine (Scorpene Class, Project 75):
One of the world’squietest diesel-electric submarines, designed for anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, armed with wire-guided torpedoes, anti-ship missiles, and advanced sonar systems.
Can undertake a variety of missions, including intelligence gathering, surveillance, and special operations.
Built in collaboration with the French Naval Group, designed under Project 75.
Commissioned as the sixth and final submarine in the Scorpene class.
Enhances India’s submarine capabilities with increased stealth and versatility.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
INS Surat: Advanced Guided Missile Destroyer (Project 15B):
Most advancedStealth destroyer with advanced strike capabilities & network-centric warfare features.
Equipped with surface-to-air missiles, anti-ship missiles, and torpedoes.
First AI-enabledwarship in India, enhancing operational efficiency with indigenous AI solutions.
Features state-of-the-art weapons and sensors for comprehensive defence.
Speed:Over 30 knots (56 km/h) with a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) propulsion system.
Part of Project 15B, developed by the Warship Design Bureau and built by MDL, Mumbai.
Commissioned as the fourth and final vessel of the class.
Pair 2 is incorrect
INS Nilgiri: Advanced Stealth Frigate (Project 17A):
Multi-role, multi-mission frigatedesigned for deep-sea operations in blue water.
Anti-surface, anti-air, and anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
Equipped with supersonic surface-to-surface missile system and MRSAM system; Features 76mm upgraded gun and rapid-fire close-in weapon systems.
First of seven ships in the Project 17Aclass. Built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
INS Vaghsheer: Stealth Submarine (Scorpene Class, Project 75):
One of the world’squietest diesel-electric submarines, designed for anti-surface, anti-submarine warfare, armed with wire-guided torpedoes, anti-ship missiles, and advanced sonar systems.
Can undertake a variety of missions, including intelligence gathering, surveillance, and special operations.
2 of 8 questions answered correctly
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