
February 21 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – February 21 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
Q1. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements regarding ‘Deposit Insurance Scheme’:
- Each depositor is insured upto ₹10 lakh per bank which includes principal but excludes interest.
- It is managed directly by RBI.
- Deposits of state and central governments are insured under deposit insurance scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Deposit insurance is a protection scheme that ensures depositors get their money back (up to a limit) in case of bank failures.
- It is managed by Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a subsidiary of RBI and not directly by RBI.
- Insurance Limit: Each depositor is insured upto ₹5 lakh per bank, including principal & interest.
- Coverage Scope:
- Included: Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, recurring deposits.
- Not Included: Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, inter-bank deposits, and deposits with State Land Development Banks.
- Treatment of Multiple Accounts: Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Deposit insurance is a protection scheme that ensures depositors get their money back (up to a limit) in case of bank failures.
- It is managed by Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a subsidiary of RBI and not directly by RBI.
- Insurance Limit: Each depositor is insured upto ₹5 lakh per bank, including principal & interest.
- Coverage Scope:
- Included: Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, recurring deposits.
- Not Included: Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, inter-bank deposits, and deposits with State Land Development Banks.
- Treatment of Multiple Accounts: Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Deposit insurance is a protection scheme that ensures depositors get their money back (up to a limit) in case of bank failures.
- It is managed by Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), a subsidiary of RBI and not directly by RBI.
- Insurance Limit: Each depositor is insured upto ₹5 lakh per bank, including principal & interest.
- Coverage Scope:
- Included: Savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, recurring deposits.
- Not Included: Deposits of foreign governments, central/state governments, inter-bank deposits, and deposits with State Land Development Banks.
- Treatment of Multiple Accounts: Deposits across different branches of the same bank are clubbed under one insurance cover
Answer: (d) None; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Q2. {Polity – IC – Emergency} Consider the following statements:
- Protect unity and integrity of the nation in a diverse society.
- Strengthen federalism while ensuring cooperation between Centre and States.
- Protect individual liberty when state machinery collapses.
- Ensure constitutional compliance by state governments.
How many of the above statements can be an objective to impose constitutional emergency in a state?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- President’s Rule, also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency, is a provision under Article 356 of the Constitution.
- It allows the central government to take direct control of a state when the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions (on receipt of a report from the Governor of a state).
- The President can assume all or any of the functions of the state government.
- President’s Rule was imposed in Manipur in February 2025 after CM N. Biren Singh resigned amid ongoing ethnic violence and political instability.
- Key Objectives:
- Protect unity and integrity of the nation in a diverse society.
- Address governance breakdown and uphold law and order.
- Strengthen federalism while ensuring cooperation between Centre and States.
- Protect individual liberty when state machinery collapses.
- Ensure constitutional compliance by state governments.
- Secure states from external aggression and internal disturbances under Article 355.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- President’s Rule, also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency, is a provision under Article 356 of the Constitution.
- It allows the central government to take direct control of a state when the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions (on receipt of a report from the Governor of a state).
- The President can assume all or any of the functions of the state government.
- President’s Rule was imposed in Manipur in February 2025 after CM N. Biren Singh resigned amid ongoing ethnic violence and political instability.
- Key Objectives:
- Protect unity and integrity of the nation in a diverse society.
- Address governance breakdown and uphold law and order.
- Strengthen federalism while ensuring cooperation between Centre and States.
- Protect individual liberty when state machinery collapses.
- Ensure constitutional compliance by state governments.
- Secure states from external aggression and internal disturbances under Article 355.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- President’s Rule, also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency, is a provision under Article 356 of the Constitution.
- It allows the central government to take direct control of a state when the state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions (on receipt of a report from the Governor of a state).
- The President can assume all or any of the functions of the state government.
- President’s Rule was imposed in Manipur in February 2025 after CM N. Biren Singh resigned amid ongoing ethnic violence and political instability.
- Key Objectives:
- Protect unity and integrity of the nation in a diverse society.
- Address governance breakdown and uphold law and order.
- Strengthen federalism while ensuring cooperation between Centre and States.
- Protect individual liberty when state machinery collapses.
- Ensure constitutional compliance by state governments.
- Secure states from external aggression and internal disturbances under Article 355.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Q3. {Geo – EG – Mineral Resources} Consider the following minerals:
- Tin
- Tantalum
- Tungsten
- Gold
How many of the above are classified as conflict minerals by OECD?
Correct
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Conflict minerals are minerals extracted from conflict-affected regions, where profits fund armed groups and human rights abuses.
- Key Conflict Minerals (3TGs): Tin, Tantalum, Tungsten, and Gold, classified by OECD.
- Major Sources: DRC, Sierra Leone, Venezuela, and other conflict-prone areas.
- Extraction Process: Sourced from ores like cassiterite (tin), columbite-tantalite (tantalum), and wolframite (tungsten).
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Conflict minerals are minerals extracted from conflict-affected regions, where profits fund armed groups and human rights abuses.
- Key Conflict Minerals (3TGs): Tin, Tantalum, Tungsten, and Gold, classified by OECD.
- Major Sources: DRC, Sierra Leone, Venezuela, and other conflict-prone areas.
- Extraction Process: Sourced from ores like cassiterite (tin), columbite-tantalite (tantalum), and wolframite (tungsten).
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (d) is correct
- Conflict minerals are minerals extracted from conflict-affected regions, where profits fund armed groups and human rights abuses.
- Key Conflict Minerals (3TGs): Tin, Tantalum, Tungsten, and Gold, classified by OECD.
- Major Sources: DRC, Sierra Leone, Venezuela, and other conflict-prone areas.
- Extraction Process: Sourced from ores like cassiterite (tin), columbite-tantalite (tantalum), and wolframite (tungsten).
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
Q4. {AH – Sites} Consider the following Iron Age sites in India:
- Hastinapur
- Ahar
- Paiyampalli
- Sivagalai
How many of the above sites are located in South India?
Correct
Explanation
- Iron Age in India: Timeline and Evolution:
- Initially believed to have started around 700-600 BCE.
- Radiocarbon dating pushed the timeline back to 1800 BCE, with evidence of iron smelting in the Central Ganga Plain and Eastern Vindhyas.
- Recent Tamil Nadu discoveries suggest iron metallurgy was established as early as 3300 BCE.
Options 3 and 4 are correct
- Iron Age sites in South India:
- Tamil Nadu’s ancient iron metallurgy sites include Mayiladumparai (3300 BCE, India’s oldest iron use), Paiyampalli (1200 BCE, large-scale smelting), Sivagalai (1100 BCE, early smelting), and Adichanallur (1000 BCE, Megalithic iron tools and burial urns).
- State Archaeology Department of Tamil Nadu (2025): Confirms iron smelting began between 3,345 BCE–2,953 BCE.
- Limited availability of copper ores in South India might have led to early adoption of iron technology.
- Excavations in Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Kilnamandi, and Mayiladumparai indicate that Tamil Nadu’s Iron Age predates much of North India.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Iron Age sites in Central and Northern India:
- Raja Nala-ka-tila (UP): Iron tools & slag found in pre-NBP (Northern Black Polished) deposits (1400–800 BCE).
- Malhar (1200 BCE) and Dadupur (1000 BCE) in UP were major iron metallurgy centers with evidence of large-scale smelting and furnaces.
- Hastinapur (UP): Iron tools associated with the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture (1000 BCE).
- Takshashila (Punjab, Pakistan): Iron tools found in Gandhara settlements (800 BCE).
- Iron Age sites in Western and Central India:
- Ahar (Rajasthan): Chalcolithic culture (2500–1700 BCE) showed early evidence of iron artifacts.
- Naikund (Vidarbha, Maharashtra): Discovery of an iron smelting furnace (1000 BCE).
- Mahurjhari (Nagpur, Maharashtra): Horse ornaments made of copper with iron knobs (800 BCE).
Answer: (a) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Iron Age in India: Timeline and Evolution:
- Initially believed to have started around 700-600 BCE.
- Radiocarbon dating pushed the timeline back to 1800 BCE, with evidence of iron smelting in the Central Ganga Plain and Eastern Vindhyas.
- Recent Tamil Nadu discoveries suggest iron metallurgy was established as early as 3300 BCE.
Options 3 and 4 are correct
- Iron Age sites in South India:
- Tamil Nadu’s ancient iron metallurgy sites include Mayiladumparai (3300 BCE, India’s oldest iron use), Paiyampalli (1200 BCE, large-scale smelting), Sivagalai (1100 BCE, early smelting), and Adichanallur (1000 BCE, Megalithic iron tools and burial urns).
- State Archaeology Department of Tamil Nadu (2025): Confirms iron smelting began between 3,345 BCE–2,953 BCE.
- Limited availability of copper ores in South India might have led to early adoption of iron technology.
- Excavations in Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Kilnamandi, and Mayiladumparai indicate that Tamil Nadu’s Iron Age predates much of North India.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Iron Age sites in Central and Northern India:
- Raja Nala-ka-tila (UP): Iron tools & slag found in pre-NBP (Northern Black Polished) deposits (1400–800 BCE).
- Malhar (1200 BCE) and Dadupur (1000 BCE) in UP were major iron metallurgy centers with evidence of large-scale smelting and furnaces.
- Hastinapur (UP): Iron tools associated with the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture (1000 BCE).
- Takshashila (Punjab, Pakistan): Iron tools found in Gandhara settlements (800 BCE).
- Iron Age sites in Western and Central India:
- Ahar (Rajasthan): Chalcolithic culture (2500–1700 BCE) showed early evidence of iron artifacts.
- Naikund (Vidarbha, Maharashtra): Discovery of an iron smelting furnace (1000 BCE).
- Mahurjhari (Nagpur, Maharashtra): Horse ornaments made of copper with iron knobs (800 BCE).
Answer: (a) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Iron Age in India: Timeline and Evolution:
- Initially believed to have started around 700-600 BCE.
- Radiocarbon dating pushed the timeline back to 1800 BCE, with evidence of iron smelting in the Central Ganga Plain and Eastern Vindhyas.
- Recent Tamil Nadu discoveries suggest iron metallurgy was established as early as 3300 BCE.
Options 3 and 4 are correct
- Iron Age sites in South India:
- Tamil Nadu’s ancient iron metallurgy sites include Mayiladumparai (3300 BCE, India’s oldest iron use), Paiyampalli (1200 BCE, large-scale smelting), Sivagalai (1100 BCE, early smelting), and Adichanallur (1000 BCE, Megalithic iron tools and burial urns).
- State Archaeology Department of Tamil Nadu (2025): Confirms iron smelting began between 3,345 BCE–2,953 BCE.
- Limited availability of copper ores in South India might have led to early adoption of iron technology.
- Excavations in Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Kilnamandi, and Mayiladumparai indicate that Tamil Nadu’s Iron Age predates much of North India.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect
- Iron Age sites in Central and Northern India:
- Raja Nala-ka-tila (UP): Iron tools & slag found in pre-NBP (Northern Black Polished) deposits (1400–800 BCE).
- Malhar (1200 BCE) and Dadupur (1000 BCE) in UP were major iron metallurgy centers with evidence of large-scale smelting and furnaces.
- Hastinapur (UP): Iron tools associated with the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture (1000 BCE).
- Takshashila (Punjab, Pakistan): Iron tools found in Gandhara settlements (800 BCE).
- Iron Age sites in Western and Central India:
- Ahar (Rajasthan): Chalcolithic culture (2500–1700 BCE) showed early evidence of iron artifacts.
- Naikund (Vidarbha, Maharashtra): Discovery of an iron smelting furnace (1000 BCE).
- Mahurjhari (Nagpur, Maharashtra): Horse ornaments made of copper with iron knobs (800 BCE).
Answer: (a) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Q5. {IR – Groupings} With reference to the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), consider the following statements:
- It was established during the Baghdad Conference by six major oil-exporting countries.
- OPEC currently has 22 member countries.
- OPEC controls more than three-fourths of the world’s crude oil reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 12 oil-exporting developing nations.
- Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
- Formation: At Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
- Objective: To coordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries to secure pricing for producers, supply for consumers, and return on capital for investors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members of OPEC (12): Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, UAE and Venezuela.
Statement 3 is correct
- OPEC controls 79.1% of the world’s proven crude oil reserves, produces 39.7% of global crude oil, and exports about 60% of the world’s petroleum.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 12 oil-exporting developing nations.
- Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
- Formation: At Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
- Objective: To coordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries to secure pricing for producers, supply for consumers, and return on capital for investors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members of OPEC (12): Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, UAE and Venezuela.
Statement 3 is correct
- OPEC controls 79.1% of the world’s proven crude oil reserves, produces 39.7% of global crude oil, and exports about 60% of the world’s petroleum.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 12 oil-exporting developing nations.
- Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
- Formation: At Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
- Objective: To coordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries to secure pricing for producers, supply for consumers, and return on capital for investors.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Members of OPEC (12): Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, UAE and Venezuela.
Statement 3 is correct
- OPEC controls 79.1% of the world’s proven crude oil reserves, produces 39.7% of global crude oil, and exports about 60% of the world’s petroleum.
Answer: (c) 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Q6. {S&T – ISRO} Consider the following pairs regarding ISRO technologies and their applications:
Technology Application - 3D LiDAR Camera
Gesture recognition in consumer electronics - Rocket Propulsion Pressure Sensors
Enables collision prevention systems in automobiles - Benzoxazine Polymer
Protect metals, composites, and buildings from acid corrosion How many of the pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- ISRO-developed space technologies are now benefiting various industries, while ISRO retains IPR with non-exclusive industry access.
Pair 1 is correct and pairs 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Applications of ISRO Technologies:
- 3D LiDAR Camera: Used for people counting in crowds, parcel measurement, near-terrain flight assistance, pedestrian detection, and gesture recognition in consumer electronics.
- Rocket Propulsion Pressure Sensors: Help determine airbag deployment timing in vehicles.
- Chandrayaan-3 Landing Software: Enables collision prevention systems in automobiles.
- Benzoxazine Polymer: Used for electronic encapsulation and as a flame-retardant material.
- Anti-Corrosive Coatings (NRCM-204): Protect metals, composites, and buildings from acid corrosion.
- Vibration Management System: Enables seismic isolation for buildings; reduces noise in transportation.
- Lithium-Ion Battery Tech: Supports green transportation by providing cost-effective EV batteries
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- ISRO-developed space technologies are now benefiting various industries, while ISRO retains IPR with non-exclusive industry access.
Pair 1 is correct and pairs 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Applications of ISRO Technologies:
- 3D LiDAR Camera: Used for people counting in crowds, parcel measurement, near-terrain flight assistance, pedestrian detection, and gesture recognition in consumer electronics.
- Rocket Propulsion Pressure Sensors: Help determine airbag deployment timing in vehicles.
- Chandrayaan-3 Landing Software: Enables collision prevention systems in automobiles.
- Benzoxazine Polymer: Used for electronic encapsulation and as a flame-retardant material.
- Anti-Corrosive Coatings (NRCM-204): Protect metals, composites, and buildings from acid corrosion.
- Vibration Management System: Enables seismic isolation for buildings; reduces noise in transportation.
- Lithium-Ion Battery Tech: Supports green transportation by providing cost-effective EV batteries
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- ISRO-developed space technologies are now benefiting various industries, while ISRO retains IPR with non-exclusive industry access.
Pair 1 is correct and pairs 2 and 3 are incorrect
- Applications of ISRO Technologies:
- 3D LiDAR Camera: Used for people counting in crowds, parcel measurement, near-terrain flight assistance, pedestrian detection, and gesture recognition in consumer electronics.
- Rocket Propulsion Pressure Sensors: Help determine airbag deployment timing in vehicles.
- Chandrayaan-3 Landing Software: Enables collision prevention systems in automobiles.
- Benzoxazine Polymer: Used for electronic encapsulation and as a flame-retardant material.
- Anti-Corrosive Coatings (NRCM-204): Protect metals, composites, and buildings from acid corrosion.
- Vibration Management System: Enables seismic isolation for buildings; reduces noise in transportation.
- Lithium-Ion Battery Tech: Supports green transportation by providing cost-effective EV batteries
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Space} Which space agency developed the Vertical Planetary Mixer, a high-capacity mixing system for processing solid propellants used in rocket motors?
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- ISRO, in collaboration with CMTI (Central Manufacturing Technology Institute, Bengaluru), developed a 10-tonne vertical planetary mixer, enhancing India’s space sector self-reliance.
- Vertical Planetary Mixer a high-capacity mixing system for processing solid propellants used in rocket motors.
- It ensures precise blending of hazardous and sensitive ingredients, crucial for rocket motor efficiency.
- How It Works?
- Uses multiple hydrostatic-driven agitators for uniform mixing of solid propellant components.
- Operated remotely via a PLC-based control system with SCADA stations for precision and safety.
- SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): A real-time monitoring and control system for industrial processes.
Answer: (c) ISRO; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- ISRO, in collaboration with CMTI (Central Manufacturing Technology Institute, Bengaluru), developed a 10-tonne vertical planetary mixer, enhancing India’s space sector self-reliance.
- Vertical Planetary Mixer a high-capacity mixing system for processing solid propellants used in rocket motors.
- It ensures precise blending of hazardous and sensitive ingredients, crucial for rocket motor efficiency.
- How It Works?
- Uses multiple hydrostatic-driven agitators for uniform mixing of solid propellant components.
- Operated remotely via a PLC-based control system with SCADA stations for precision and safety.
- SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): A real-time monitoring and control system for industrial processes.
Answer: (c) ISRO; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- ISRO, in collaboration with CMTI (Central Manufacturing Technology Institute, Bengaluru), developed a 10-tonne vertical planetary mixer, enhancing India’s space sector self-reliance.
- Vertical Planetary Mixer a high-capacity mixing system for processing solid propellants used in rocket motors.
- It ensures precise blending of hazardous and sensitive ingredients, crucial for rocket motor efficiency.
- How It Works?
- Uses multiple hydrostatic-driven agitators for uniform mixing of solid propellant components.
- Operated remotely via a PLC-based control system with SCADA stations for precision and safety.
- SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): A real-time monitoring and control system for industrial processes.
Answer: (c) ISRO; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
Q8. {Sci – Bio – Diseases} How many of the following can be potential health risks associated with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
- Metabolic disorders
- Hypertension
- Diabetes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Explanation
All the options are correct
- PCOS is a common hormonal disorder affecting millions of women, leading to menstrual irregularities, metabolic issues, and fertility challenges.
- Endocrine disorder characterized by hormonal imbalance, chronic anovulation & metabolic disturbances.
- Prevalence: Affects 6-26% of women globally; in India, the prevalence is 3.7-22.5%.
- Causes: Genetic predisposition, neuroendocrine dysfunction, sedentary lifestyle, dietary habits, & obesity.
- Health Risks Associated with PCOS:
- Endocrine Complications: Increased testosterone levels leading to metabolic disorders.
- Cardiovascular Risks: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and an elevated risk of heart disease.
- Insulin Resistance: High likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes due to impaired glucose metabolism.
- Mental Health Concerns: Increased prevalence of anxiety and depression among PCOS patients
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All the options are correct
- PCOS is a common hormonal disorder affecting millions of women, leading to menstrual irregularities, metabolic issues, and fertility challenges.
- Endocrine disorder characterized by hormonal imbalance, chronic anovulation & metabolic disturbances.
- Prevalence: Affects 6-26% of women globally; in India, the prevalence is 3.7-22.5%.
- Causes: Genetic predisposition, neuroendocrine dysfunction, sedentary lifestyle, dietary habits, & obesity.
- Health Risks Associated with PCOS:
- Endocrine Complications: Increased testosterone levels leading to metabolic disorders.
- Cardiovascular Risks: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and an elevated risk of heart disease.
- Insulin Resistance: High likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes due to impaired glucose metabolism.
- Mental Health Concerns: Increased prevalence of anxiety and depression among PCOS patients
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All the options are correct
- PCOS is a common hormonal disorder affecting millions of women, leading to menstrual irregularities, metabolic issues, and fertility challenges.
- Endocrine disorder characterized by hormonal imbalance, chronic anovulation & metabolic disturbances.
- Prevalence: Affects 6-26% of women globally; in India, the prevalence is 3.7-22.5%.
- Causes: Genetic predisposition, neuroendocrine dysfunction, sedentary lifestyle, dietary habits, & obesity.
- Health Risks Associated with PCOS:
- Endocrine Complications: Increased testosterone levels leading to metabolic disorders.
- Cardiovascular Risks: Hypertension, high cholesterol, and an elevated risk of heart disease.
- Insulin Resistance: High likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes due to impaired glucose metabolism.
- Mental Health Concerns: Increased prevalence of anxiety and depression among PCOS patients
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
Q9. {S&T – Space} Which of the following best explains the phenomenon “Einstein Ring”:
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.
- They are extremely rare, less than 1% of galaxies have an Einstein ring. The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987.
- Einstein rings can be observed only through space telescopes.
- The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered an ‘Einstein ring’, around a NGC 6505 galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth.
- Gravitational Lensing:
- Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial body such as a galaxy cluster warps space and time causing light to bend, distort, and magnify as it passes around the massive object.
- The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens.
- Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos.
Answer: (a) An example of gravitational lensing; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.
- They are extremely rare, less than 1% of galaxies have an Einstein ring. The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987.
- Einstein rings can be observed only through space telescopes.
- The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered an ‘Einstein ring’, around a NGC 6505 galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth.
- Gravitational Lensing:
- Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial body such as a galaxy cluster warps space and time causing light to bend, distort, and magnify as it passes around the massive object.
- The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens.
- Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos.
Answer: (a) An example of gravitational lensing; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.
- They are extremely rare, less than 1% of galaxies have an Einstein ring. The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987.
- Einstein rings can be observed only through space telescopes.
- The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered an ‘Einstein ring’, around a NGC 6505 galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth.
- Gravitational Lensing:
- Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial body such as a galaxy cluster warps space and time causing light to bend, distort, and magnify as it passes around the massive object.
- The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens.
- Albert Einstein’s general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos.
Answer: (a) An example of gravitational lensing; Difficulty Level: Medium
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