
February 19 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – February 19 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {IR – India-US} Recently, the US president and the Indian PM announced plans to negotiate the first tranche of a mutually beneficial, multi-sector Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) by fall of 2025. In this context, consider the following statements:
- ‘Mission 500’ aims to more than double the bilateral trade between India and US to $500 billion by 2050.
- BTA is flexible, covering selective industries without mandating “substantially all trade” like an FTA.
- The launch of INDUS Innovation was announced that will advance U.S.-India industry and academic partnerships and foster investments in space, energy, and other emerging technologies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) vs. Free Trade Agreement (FTA):
- BTA is flexible, covering selective industries without mandating “substantially all trade” like an FTA.
- Focus on tariff reductions, easing non-tariff barriers (NTBs) & improving supply chain linkages.
- Simplified Rules of Origin (RoO) to facilitate preferential trading under WTO compliance.
- INDUS Innovation:
- The leaders announced the launch of INDUS Innovation, a new innovation bridge modeled after the successful INDUS-X platform, that will advance U.S.-India industry and academic partnerships and foster investments in space, energy, and other emerging technologies to maintain U.S. and India leadership in innovation and to meet the needs of the 21st century.
- The leaders also reinforced their commitment to the INDUS-X initiative, which facilities partnerships between U.S. and Indian defense companies, investors and universities to produce critical capability for our militaries, and welcomed the next summit in 2025.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mission 500 and Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA):
- India and the US aim to achieve a $500 billion trade target by 2030 under “Mission 500″.
- Simultaneous multi-sectoral imports and exports covering goods and services trade between India and the US to enhance product diversity.
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) to be signed by Fall 2025 under the broader framework of COMPACT (Catalysing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce and Technology).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) vs. Free Trade Agreement (FTA):
- BTA is flexible, covering selective industries without mandating “substantially all trade” like an FTA.
- Focus on tariff reductions, easing non-tariff barriers (NTBs) & improving supply chain linkages.
- Simplified Rules of Origin (RoO) to facilitate preferential trading under WTO compliance.
- INDUS Innovation:
- The leaders announced the launch of INDUS Innovation, a new innovation bridge modeled after the successful INDUS-X platform, that will advance U.S.-India industry and academic partnerships and foster investments in space, energy, and other emerging technologies to maintain U.S. and India leadership in innovation and to meet the needs of the 21st century.
- The leaders also reinforced their commitment to the INDUS-X initiative, which facilities partnerships between U.S. and Indian defense companies, investors and universities to produce critical capability for our militaries, and welcomed the next summit in 2025.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mission 500 and Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA):
- India and the US aim to achieve a $500 billion trade target by 2030 under “Mission 500″.
- Simultaneous multi-sectoral imports and exports covering goods and services trade between India and the US to enhance product diversity.
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) to be signed by Fall 2025 under the broader framework of COMPACT (Catalysing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce and Technology).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) vs. Free Trade Agreement (FTA):
- BTA is flexible, covering selective industries without mandating “substantially all trade” like an FTA.
- Focus on tariff reductions, easing non-tariff barriers (NTBs) & improving supply chain linkages.
- Simplified Rules of Origin (RoO) to facilitate preferential trading under WTO compliance.
- INDUS Innovation:
- The leaders announced the launch of INDUS Innovation, a new innovation bridge modeled after the successful INDUS-X platform, that will advance U.S.-India industry and academic partnerships and foster investments in space, energy, and other emerging technologies to maintain U.S. and India leadership in innovation and to meet the needs of the 21st century.
- The leaders also reinforced their commitment to the INDUS-X initiative, which facilities partnerships between U.S. and Indian defense companies, investors and universities to produce critical capability for our militaries, and welcomed the next summit in 2025.
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Mission 500 and Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA):
- India and the US aim to achieve a $500 billion trade target by 2030 under “Mission 500″.
- Simultaneous multi-sectoral imports and exports covering goods and services trade between India and the US to enhance product diversity.
- Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) to be signed by Fall 2025 under the broader framework of COMPACT (Catalysing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce and Technology).
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {IE- Employment} Consider the following statements regarding employment in India and the shifting jobs:
- Around 90% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs, mainly in agriculture and mining.
- Public sector employment increased in number during the last three decades.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Declining Public Sector Employment:
- Public sector jobs fell from 194.7 lakh (1995) to 176.1 lakh (2012).
- Railways workforce declined from 16.5 lakh (1990-91) to 12.5 lakh (2023-24).
- Central PSUs employment dropped from 22.2 lakh (1990-91) to 8.1 lakh (2023-24).
- Rise of Private Sector Employment:
- Shift to Private Sector: Post-1991 reforms, employment moved from government-controlled to private-driven sectors, especially IT, banking, and financial services.
- IT Sector Growth: Major firms (TCS, Infosys, Wipro, HCL) employ 15.34 lakh, exceeding Railways and Armed Forces.
- Banking Sector Shift: Private bank employees (8.74 lakh) outnumber public sector bank employees (<7.5 lakh) in 2023-24.
- Agriculture to Services Shift:
- Declining Agricultural Employment: Agriculture’s share in employment fell from 64% (1993-94) to 42.5% (2018-19), rising to 46.2% in 2023-24 due to reverse migration.
- Skipped Industrialization: India bypassed large-scale industrialization, prioritized service sector growth.
- Service Sector Expansion: Contributes 55-60% to GDP but generates fewer jobs, with a divide between high-paying IT/finance roles and low-wage gig economy jobs.
Informal & Gig Economy Growth:
- Dominance of Informal Sector: Around 90% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs, mainly in construction, sanitation, retail, and security (PLFS 2023-24).
- Gig Economy Expansion: Uber (10 lakh drivers) and Zomato (4.8 lakh food deliverers) provide flexible but insecure jobs with limited upward mobility.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Declining Public Sector Employment:
- Public sector jobs fell from 194.7 lakh (1995) to 176.1 lakh (2012).
- Railways workforce declined from 16.5 lakh (1990-91) to 12.5 lakh (2023-24).
- Central PSUs employment dropped from 22.2 lakh (1990-91) to 8.1 lakh (2023-24).
- Rise of Private Sector Employment:
- Shift to Private Sector: Post-1991 reforms, employment moved from government-controlled to private-driven sectors, especially IT, banking, and financial services.
- IT Sector Growth: Major firms (TCS, Infosys, Wipro, HCL) employ 15.34 lakh, exceeding Railways and Armed Forces.
- Banking Sector Shift: Private bank employees (8.74 lakh) outnumber public sector bank employees (<7.5 lakh) in 2023-24.
- Agriculture to Services Shift:
- Declining Agricultural Employment: Agriculture’s share in employment fell from 64% (1993-94) to 42.5% (2018-19), rising to 46.2% in 2023-24 due to reverse migration.
- Skipped Industrialization: India bypassed large-scale industrialization, prioritized service sector growth.
- Service Sector Expansion: Contributes 55-60% to GDP but generates fewer jobs, with a divide between high-paying IT/finance roles and low-wage gig economy jobs.
Informal & Gig Economy Growth:
- Dominance of Informal Sector: Around 90% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs, mainly in construction, sanitation, retail, and security (PLFS 2023-24).
- Gig Economy Expansion: Uber (10 lakh drivers) and Zomato (4.8 lakh food deliverers) provide flexible but insecure jobs with limited upward mobility.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Declining Public Sector Employment:
- Public sector jobs fell from 194.7 lakh (1995) to 176.1 lakh (2012).
- Railways workforce declined from 16.5 lakh (1990-91) to 12.5 lakh (2023-24).
- Central PSUs employment dropped from 22.2 lakh (1990-91) to 8.1 lakh (2023-24).
- Rise of Private Sector Employment:
- Shift to Private Sector: Post-1991 reforms, employment moved from government-controlled to private-driven sectors, especially IT, banking, and financial services.
- IT Sector Growth: Major firms (TCS, Infosys, Wipro, HCL) employ 15.34 lakh, exceeding Railways and Armed Forces.
- Banking Sector Shift: Private bank employees (8.74 lakh) outnumber public sector bank employees (<7.5 lakh) in 2023-24.
- Agriculture to Services Shift:
- Declining Agricultural Employment: Agriculture’s share in employment fell from 64% (1993-94) to 42.5% (2018-19), rising to 46.2% in 2023-24 due to reverse migration.
- Skipped Industrialization: India bypassed large-scale industrialization, prioritized service sector growth.
- Service Sector Expansion: Contributes 55-60% to GDP but generates fewer jobs, with a divide between high-paying IT/finance roles and low-wage gig economy jobs.
Informal & Gig Economy Growth:
- Dominance of Informal Sector: Around 90% of India’s workforce is in informal jobs, mainly in construction, sanitation, retail, and security (PLFS 2023-24).
- Gig Economy Expansion: Uber (10 lakh drivers) and Zomato (4.8 lakh food deliverers) provide flexible but insecure jobs with limited upward mobility.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – Bio} Consider the following statements regarding bacterial cellulose:
- Statement I: A research showed that the application of bacterial cellulose patches resulted in significant wound healing in plants within a week.
- Statement II: Bacterial cellulose contains lignin, which is often rapidly deposited in response to injury by fungi, protecting the plant body from the diffusion of fungal enzymes and toxins.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- The Research shows the potential of bacterial cellulose as an effective plant wound dressing.
- Key Findings:
- Application of bacterial cellulose patches resulted in over 80% wound healing in plants within a week, compared to less than 20% in untreated wounds.
- Enhanced vegetative propagation, with treated cuttings developing roots and leaves more rapidly.
- About Bacterial Cellulose:
- Definition: A highly pure form of cellulose synthesized by bacteria, notably Gluconacetobacter xylinus.
- Characteristics: Free from lignin & hemicellulose, high moisture retention, durability & biodegradability.
- Production: Bacteria synthesize cellulose through oxidative fermentation in various media, including agricultural waste substrates.
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- The Research shows the potential of bacterial cellulose as an effective plant wound dressing.
- Key Findings:
- Application of bacterial cellulose patches resulted in over 80% wound healing in plants within a week, compared to less than 20% in untreated wounds.
- Enhanced vegetative propagation, with treated cuttings developing roots and leaves more rapidly.
- About Bacterial Cellulose:
- Definition: A highly pure form of cellulose synthesized by bacteria, notably Gluconacetobacter xylinus.
- Characteristics: Free from lignin & hemicellulose, high moisture retention, durability & biodegradability.
- Production: Bacteria synthesize cellulose through oxidative fermentation in various media, including agricultural waste substrates.
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- The Research shows the potential of bacterial cellulose as an effective plant wound dressing.
- Key Findings:
- Application of bacterial cellulose patches resulted in over 80% wound healing in plants within a week, compared to less than 20% in untreated wounds.
- Enhanced vegetative propagation, with treated cuttings developing roots and leaves more rapidly.
- About Bacterial Cellulose:
- Definition: A highly pure form of cellulose synthesized by bacteria, notably Gluconacetobacter xylinus.
- Characteristics: Free from lignin & hemicellulose, high moisture retention, durability & biodegradability.
- Production: Bacteria synthesize cellulose through oxidative fermentation in various media, including agricultural waste substrates.
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {PIN World} Consider the following pairs:
Volcanoes in news Location - Mount Kilauea
South Africa - Nea Kameni
Indonesia - Mount Etna
Spain How many of the pairs are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
All pairs are incorrect
Volcanoes in news Location - Mount Kilauea
Hawaii (U.S.A.) - Nea Kameni
Greece - Mount Etna
Italy Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All pairs are incorrect
Volcanoes in news Location - Mount Kilauea
Hawaii (U.S.A.) - Nea Kameni
Greece - Mount Etna
Italy Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All pairs are incorrect
Volcanoes in news Location - Mount Kilauea
Hawaii (U.S.A.) - Nea Kameni
Greece - Mount Etna
Italy Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Geo – PG – Geomorphology} Consider the following statements regarding earthquake waves and earthquake zones in India:
- P-waves can travel through all three states of matter, whereas S-waves can only travel through liquids and gases.
- L-waves are surface waves that cause the most destruction during an earthquake.
- India is divided into four seismic zones, with Zone-5 being the most earthquake-prone.
- Delhi falls in Seismic Zone-3, but some areas within the city can be as dangerous as Zone-5.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- Earthquake Waves:
- Body Waves: P-waves (Primary Waves) are faster, travel through solids, liquids, and gases; S-waves (Secondary Waves) are slower, travel only through solids.
- Surface Waves: L-waves are the most destructive, traveling along the Earth’s surface.
- Hypocenter: The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates.
- Epicenter: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the hypocenter.
Statement 3 is correct but Statement 4 is incorrect
- Earthquake Zones (Seismic Zones) of India:
- According to risk of earthquake, India is divided into four parts, zone-2, zone-3, zone-4 & zone 5.
- Of these, the least threatened is Zone 2 & the highest risked is Zone-5.
- North-East, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand & parts of Himachal Pradesh fall under Zone-5.
- Delhi falls in Zone-4, central India falls under relatively low danger zone of Zone-3, while most of the south falls in Zone-2 with limited danger, but it is a thicker classification.
- There are some areas in Delhi which can be as dangerous as Zone-5.
- Thus, there may be many places in the southern states which may be hazardous like zone-4 or zone-5.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- Earthquake Waves:
- Body Waves: P-waves (Primary Waves) are faster, travel through solids, liquids, and gases; S-waves (Secondary Waves) are slower, travel only through solids.
- Surface Waves: L-waves are the most destructive, traveling along the Earth’s surface.
- Hypocenter: The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates.
- Epicenter: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the hypocenter.
Statement 3 is correct but Statement 4 is incorrect
- Earthquake Zones (Seismic Zones) of India:
- According to risk of earthquake, India is divided into four parts, zone-2, zone-3, zone-4 & zone 5.
- Of these, the least threatened is Zone 2 & the highest risked is Zone-5.
- North-East, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand & parts of Himachal Pradesh fall under Zone-5.
- Delhi falls in Zone-4, central India falls under relatively low danger zone of Zone-3, while most of the south falls in Zone-2 with limited danger, but it is a thicker classification.
- There are some areas in Delhi which can be as dangerous as Zone-5.
- Thus, there may be many places in the southern states which may be hazardous like zone-4 or zone-5.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
- Earthquake Waves:
- Body Waves: P-waves (Primary Waves) are faster, travel through solids, liquids, and gases; S-waves (Secondary Waves) are slower, travel only through solids.
- Surface Waves: L-waves are the most destructive, traveling along the Earth’s surface.
- Hypocenter: The point within the Earth where an earthquake originates.
- Epicenter: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the hypocenter.
Statement 3 is correct but Statement 4 is incorrect
- Earthquake Zones (Seismic Zones) of India:
- According to risk of earthquake, India is divided into four parts, zone-2, zone-3, zone-4 & zone 5.
- Of these, the least threatened is Zone 2 & the highest risked is Zone-5.
- North-East, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand & parts of Himachal Pradesh fall under Zone-5.
- Delhi falls in Zone-4, central India falls under relatively low danger zone of Zone-3, while most of the south falls in Zone-2 with limited danger, but it is a thicker classification.
- There are some areas in Delhi which can be as dangerous as Zone-5.
- Thus, there may be many places in the southern states which may be hazardous like zone-4 or zone-5.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements regarding the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework:
- The PCA Framework was first introduced by the RBI in 2002 for all Scheduled Commercial Banks, including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
- Currently, the PCA Framework applies to most NBFCs, including government NBFCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The PCA Framework, established by the RBI in 2002, ensures the stability of banks and NBFCs.
- Historical Perspective:
- 2002: RBI Governor Bimal Jalan introduced PCA for Scheduled Commercial Banks, excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
- 2018: NABARD implemented a separate PCA framework for RRBs with its own set of regulations.
Statement 2 is correct
- Now, the PCA framework applies to:
- All Scheduled Commercial Banks except Regional Rural Banks, Payment Banks, and Small Finance Banks.
- Most NBFCs, including government NBFCs.
- PCA allows timely supervisory intervention and requires entities to implement remedial measures to restore financial health.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The PCA Framework, established by the RBI in 2002, ensures the stability of banks and NBFCs.
- Historical Perspective:
- 2002: RBI Governor Bimal Jalan introduced PCA for Scheduled Commercial Banks, excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
- 2018: NABARD implemented a separate PCA framework for RRBs with its own set of regulations.
Statement 2 is correct
- Now, the PCA framework applies to:
- All Scheduled Commercial Banks except Regional Rural Banks, Payment Banks, and Small Finance Banks.
- Most NBFCs, including government NBFCs.
- PCA allows timely supervisory intervention and requires entities to implement remedial measures to restore financial health.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The PCA Framework, established by the RBI in 2002, ensures the stability of banks and NBFCs.
- Historical Perspective:
- 2002: RBI Governor Bimal Jalan introduced PCA for Scheduled Commercial Banks, excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
- 2018: NABARD implemented a separate PCA framework for RRBs with its own set of regulations.
Statement 2 is correct
- Now, the PCA framework applies to:
- All Scheduled Commercial Banks except Regional Rural Banks, Payment Banks, and Small Finance Banks.
- Most NBFCs, including government NBFCs.
- PCA allows timely supervisory intervention and requires entities to implement remedial measures to restore financial health.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Nuclear Energy} Consider the following statements regarding fusion reactors:
- Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST), a fusion research facility in China, is designed to generate electricity for commercial use.
- International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) is a collaborative project involving over 30 countries, located in France.
- J-TEXT Tokamak, a fusion research facility in Japan, is one of the key contributors to global nuclear fusion research.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- China’s Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) set a new world record by sustaining a plasma at 100 million degrees Celsius for 1,066 seconds.
- EAST’s Role in Fusion Research:
- Experimental Nature: EAST is not designed to generate electricity but serves as a testbed for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) and future fusion reactors.
- World Record Achievements: EAST sustained plasma for 403 seconds in 2023 and extended it to 1,066 seconds in 2025 by doubling thermal power.
- Superconducting Tokamak: Uses toroidal and poloidal magnetic fields to stabilize plasma, making it the only tokamak with this dual capability.
Statement 2 is correct but Statement 3 is incorrect
- Other Fusion Projects:
- ITER Project: A collaborative effort in France involving over 30 countries; expected to begin deuterium-tritium fusion reactions by 2039, providing a pathway for future electricity generation through fusion.
- HL-2M Tokamak: Largest and most advanced fusion device in China, operational since 2020.
- J-TEXT Tokamak: Another key fusion project in China contributing to its fusion research.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- China’s Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) set a new world record by sustaining a plasma at 100 million degrees Celsius for 1,066 seconds.
- EAST’s Role in Fusion Research:
- Experimental Nature: EAST is not designed to generate electricity but serves as a testbed for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) and future fusion reactors.
- World Record Achievements: EAST sustained plasma for 403 seconds in 2023 and extended it to 1,066 seconds in 2025 by doubling thermal power.
- Superconducting Tokamak: Uses toroidal and poloidal magnetic fields to stabilize plasma, making it the only tokamak with this dual capability.
Statement 2 is correct but Statement 3 is incorrect
- Other Fusion Projects:
- ITER Project: A collaborative effort in France involving over 30 countries; expected to begin deuterium-tritium fusion reactions by 2039, providing a pathway for future electricity generation through fusion.
- HL-2M Tokamak: Largest and most advanced fusion device in China, operational since 2020.
- J-TEXT Tokamak: Another key fusion project in China contributing to its fusion research.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- China’s Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) set a new world record by sustaining a plasma at 100 million degrees Celsius for 1,066 seconds.
- EAST’s Role in Fusion Research:
- Experimental Nature: EAST is not designed to generate electricity but serves as a testbed for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) and future fusion reactors.
- World Record Achievements: EAST sustained plasma for 403 seconds in 2023 and extended it to 1,066 seconds in 2025 by doubling thermal power.
- Superconducting Tokamak: Uses toroidal and poloidal magnetic fields to stabilize plasma, making it the only tokamak with this dual capability.
Statement 2 is correct but Statement 3 is incorrect
- Other Fusion Projects:
- ITER Project: A collaborative effort in France involving over 30 countries; expected to begin deuterium-tritium fusion reactions by 2039, providing a pathway for future electricity generation through fusion.
- HL-2M Tokamak: Largest and most advanced fusion device in China, operational since 2020.
- J-TEXT Tokamak: Another key fusion project in China contributing to its fusion research.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {IR – Mapping} Consider the following countries:
- Kenya
- Uganda
- Tanzania
- Rwanda
How many of the above countries share a border with Lake Victoria?
Correct
Explanation
Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct
- Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America.
- Bordering Countries: Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%).
- Lake Victoria touches the Equator on its northern side.
- It is the source of White Nile, which flows north to join Blue Nile in Sudan, forming the Nile River.
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct
- Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America.
- Bordering Countries: Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%).
- Lake Victoria touches the Equator on its northern side.
- It is the source of White Nile, which flows north to join Blue Nile in Sudan, forming the Nile River.
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct
- Lake Victoria is Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America.
- Bordering Countries: Kenya (6%), Uganda (43%), and Tanzania (51%).
- Lake Victoria touches the Equator on its northern side.
- It is the source of White Nile, which flows north to join Blue Nile in Sudan, forming the Nile River.
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
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