February 11 2025 Current Affairs MCQs

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• Article 200 provides the Governor with multiple options when a bill is presented after being passed by the state legislature:
  • Give assent → The bill becomes law.
  • Withhold assent → The Governor may return the bill to the legislature for reconsideration.
  • Reserve for President’s consideration → If the bill involves matters requiring Union intervention.

Statement 2 is correct

• Re-presentation of Bill:
  • If the legislature re-passes the bill without changes, the Governor must grant assent.
  • Exception: If the bill affects High Court powers, it must be sent to the President for consideration.

Statement 3 is incorrect

• Powers of the Governor under Article 201
  • It states that when a Bill is reserved for the president’s consideration, the President may approve of it or withhold assent.
  • The President may also direct the Governor to return the Bill to the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State for reconsideration.
• The Governor does not have to reserve every bill for the President’s approval. The reservation applies only in specific constitutional cases

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) was established in 2003 by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture (now Ministry of Culture).

Statement 2 is correct

• Manuscripts: Handwritten compositions on paper, bark, cloth, metal, palm leaf, or other materials, at least 75 years old, with historical, scientific, or aesthetic significance.
• Distinct from Epigraphs: Unlike inscriptions or historical records, manuscripts contain knowledge content rather than direct event documentation.
• National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM)
  • Motto: Conserving the past for the future.
  • Mandate: Document, conserve, and disseminate knowledge preserved in manuscripts.
  • Significance: India has around ten million manuscripts, the largest collection globally.
  • Languages Covered: 75% in Sanskrit, 25% in regional languages.

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority was established in December 2005 following a recommendation of the Tiger Task Force.
• National Tiger Conservation Authority administers Project Tiger.
• Administration of the tiger reserves is in accordance with guidelines of NTCA.
• Tiger reserves in India are administered by field directors as mandated by NTCA.
• No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on a recommendation of the NTCA and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.
• No State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public interest with the approval of the NTCA and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.

Statement 2 is correct

• The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006 provides for creating:
  • National Tiger Conservation Authority and
  • Tiger and Other Endangered Species Crime Control Bureau (Wildlife Crime Control Bureau)

Statement 3 is correct

• NTCA members:
  • The Wildlife Protection Amendment Act, 2006 provides for the constitution of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
  • NTCA was set up under the Chairmanship of the Minister for Environment and Forests.
  • The Authority will have eight experts having qualifications in wildlife conservation and welfare tribals,
  • 3 MPs,
  • The Inspector-General of Forests, in charge of project Tiger, will be ex-officio Member Secretary Others.

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Hard

Explanation

Option (b) is correct

• Israel has initiated the withdrawal of troops from the Netzarim corridor in Gaza as part of a ceasefire agreement with Hamas, marking a key step in the truce implementation.
• Netzarim Corridor:
  • It is a 7km east-west passage from the Israeli border south of Nahal Oz to the Mediterranean, holds strategic and military relevance, separating Gaza City from the rest of the Gaza Strip.
  • Strategic Location: The Netzarim corridor, which bisects northern and southern Gaza, has historically restricted Palestinian movement.

Answer: (b) Gaza Strip; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Option (c) is correct

• January 2025 was the hottest on record, with global surface air temperatures 1.75°C above pre-industrial levels, despite the onset of La Niña in December 2024.
• Reasond behind La Niña Fail to Cool January 2025:
  • Expected Cooling Effect of La Niña: Typically lowers global temperatures due to enhanced oceanic cooling and atmospheric changes.
    • Weak La Niña Event: The ongoing La Niña is weaker than usual due to its late emergence in December 2024 instead of the expected September onset.
    • Limited Time for Strengthening: ENSO events peak in Northern Hemisphere winters, leaving La Niña little time to gain intensity.
    • High Atmospheric Carbon Levels: Greenhouse gas (GHG) concentrations in late 2024 and January 2025 remained exceptionally high, counteracting La Niña’s cooling effect.
    • Aerosol Reduction: Clean air policies in several regions have reduced atmospheric aerosols, which usually reflect solar radiation and cool the planet.
    • Regional Variations: ENSO phases impact different regions differently, meaning not all areas experi-ence uniform cooling.
  • Significance of This Trend:
    • Declining Impact of Natural Cooling Cycles: The failure of La Niña to moderate temperatures suggests that natural climate regulators are losing effectiveness.
    • Record-High GHG Levels: 2024 saw the highest-ever atmospheric GHG concentrations, reinforcing the urgent need for emission reductions.
    • Climate Crisis Indicator: A single warm January doesn’t define long-term trends but signals the worsening global warming trajectory.

Answer: (c) All four; Difficulty Level: Hard

Explanation

• India and the U.K. signed multiple defence agreements at Aero India 2025, including missile produc-tion and naval propulsion system development.

Statement 1 is correct

• Man Portable Air Defence Systems (MANPADS): Contract signed between Thales U.K. and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) for Laser Beam-Riding MANPADS (LBRMs).
• Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM): Thales and BDL to jointly produce LMMs, strengthening the defence industry partnership.

Statement 2 is incorrect

• Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) Facility: MBDA U.K. and BDL collaborating to establish an ASRAAM assembly and test facility in Hyderabad.

Statement 3 is correct

• Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) System: Statement of Intent (SoI) signed for developing IFEP technology for Indian Navy’s future Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleet.
• Defence Partnership–India (DP-I): U.K. launched a dedicated cell to strengthen India-U.K. defence collaboration, which will act as a one-stop office for enhancing bilateral defence projects & partner-ships.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Hard

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, but statement 2 is correct

• ASHA Workers in India:
  • Role & Function: Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are community health workers under the National Health Mission (NHM), responsible for maternal-child healthcare, immunization, and health awareness at the grassroots level.
  • Healthcare Link Between Community and System: Facilitate access to maternal and child healthcare, immunisation, and sanitation awareness.
  • Coverage: Over 10 lakh ASHA workers operate across rural and urban areas, acting as a vital link be-tween communities and the public healthcare system.
  • Incentives & Challenges: ASHAs receive performance-based incentives rather than fixed salaries, leading to demands for better pay, social security, and worker recognition.
  • Global Recognition: In 2022, ASHA workers were honored with the WHO Global Health Leaders Award for their contributions to public health, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Selection and Training:
  • Eligibility Criteria: Women aged 25-45, selected through a rigorous community-driven process.
  • Training Modules: Undergo structured training on maternal care, immunisation, sanitation, and pri-mary healthcare services.

Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, but Statement 3 is incorrect

• Odisha is set to launch its first captive breeding program for sambar at Satkosia Tiger Reserve to increase prey availability for predators like Royal Bengal Tigers and leopards.
• This initiative aims to bolster prey density, a critical component for resuming the tiger translocation program that was halted in 2018 due to insufficient prey.
• Sambar Deer:
  • Native Range: Sambar is native to the Indian subcontinent, South China, and Southeast Asia.
  • Geographical Distribution: Found in South Asia, Southeast Asia, and parts of China, including Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, and Indonesia.
  • Habitat: Inhabits tropical & subtropical forests, montane grasslands, rainforests, often near water. Prefers dense vegetation such as deciduous shrubs and grasses
  • Altitude Range: Found up to 3,500 m (11,500 ft) in the Himalayan foothills and parts of Taiwan.
  • Behavior: Nocturnal or crepuscular, with males living solitarily and females in small herds.
  • Conservation Status: IUCN: Vulnerable
  • Population Decline: Numbers have declined due to hunting, insurgency, and habitat destruction.
  • Significance: Sambar is a preferred prey for the Royal Bengal Tiger and leopards, both apex predators

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium