
February 07 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – February 07 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {IR-Issues} Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC):
- ICC can only prosecute crimes committed in a State Party or by a State Party national.
- India does not recognize ICC’s authority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- International Criminal Court (ICC) is a permanent judicial body based in The Hague, Netherlands.
- It was established under the 1998 Rome Statute, operational since July 1, 2002.
- Purpose: Court of last resort to prosecute crimes that would otherwise go unpunished.
- Membership: 125 nations recognize ICC’s authority; notable non-members include US, Israel, China, Russia, and India.
- Relationship with UN: ICC has a separate agreement with the UN.
Statement 1 is correct
- ICC prosecutes genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and crimes of aggression.
- Jurisdiction Conditions:
- Crime committed in a State Party or by a State Party national.
- Crime referred by the UN Security Council.
- Crime committed after July 1, 2002.
- Complementarity Principle: ICC prosecutes cases only when national courts are unable or unwilling to do so.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- International Criminal Court (ICC) is a permanent judicial body based in The Hague, Netherlands.
- It was established under the 1998 Rome Statute, operational since July 1, 2002.
- Purpose: Court of last resort to prosecute crimes that would otherwise go unpunished.
- Membership: 125 nations recognize ICC’s authority; notable non-members include US, Israel, China, Russia, and India.
- Relationship with UN: ICC has a separate agreement with the UN.
Statement 1 is correct
- ICC prosecutes genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and crimes of aggression.
- Jurisdiction Conditions:
- Crime committed in a State Party or by a State Party national.
- Crime referred by the UN Security Council.
- Crime committed after July 1, 2002.
- Complementarity Principle: ICC prosecutes cases only when national courts are unable or unwilling to do so.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 2 is correct
- International Criminal Court (ICC) is a permanent judicial body based in The Hague, Netherlands.
- It was established under the 1998 Rome Statute, operational since July 1, 2002.
- Purpose: Court of last resort to prosecute crimes that would otherwise go unpunished.
- Membership: 125 nations recognize ICC’s authority; notable non-members include US, Israel, China, Russia, and India.
- Relationship with UN: ICC has a separate agreement with the UN.
Statement 1 is correct
- ICC prosecutes genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and crimes of aggression.
- Jurisdiction Conditions:
- Crime committed in a State Party or by a State Party national.
- Crime referred by the UN Security Council.
- Crime committed after July 1, 2002.
- Complementarity Principle: ICC prosecutes cases only when national courts are unable or unwilling to do so.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Polity – IC – Citizenship} Consider the following statements regarding foreigners tribunal:
- They are currently operational only in Jammu Kashmir, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
- They must dispose of cases within 60 days.
- In a case before Foreigners Tribunal, Burden of Proof lies with the accused person.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Foreigners tribunal were created by Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964 under Foreigners Act, 1946.
- Post-independence, they were recognised in 1964 by an executive order of the Home Ministry.
- Under Section 2(a) of the 1946 Act, “a foreigner means a person who is not a citizen of India”.
- Thus, it will apply only to persons against whom there is strong evidence of being a foreigner. etic
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Though applicable across India, FTs are currently operational only in Assam. In other states, local courts handle such cases under the Foreigners Act of 1946.
- FTs are unique to Assam and handle cases of suspected illegal immigrants, especially those excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
Statement 2 and 3 are correct
- FTs must dispose of cases within 60 days. If an individual fails to provide evidence of citizenship, they are sent to detention centers for eventual deportation.
- Burden of Proof lies with the accused person, who must prove their citizenship; failure to appear or provide proof results in a declaration as a foreigner.
- Individuals can challenge FT decisions in the Gauhati High Court and, if dissatisfied, appeal to the Supreme Court.
- Post 2019 amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, state and central govts can establish FTs.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- Foreigners tribunal were created by Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964 under Foreigners Act, 1946.
- Post-independence, they were recognised in 1964 by an executive order of the Home Ministry.
- Under Section 2(a) of the 1946 Act, “a foreigner means a person who is not a citizen of India”.
- Thus, it will apply only to persons against whom there is strong evidence of being a foreigner. etic
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Though applicable across India, FTs are currently operational only in Assam. In other states, local courts handle such cases under the Foreigners Act of 1946.
- FTs are unique to Assam and handle cases of suspected illegal immigrants, especially those excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
Statement 2 and 3 are correct
- FTs must dispose of cases within 60 days. If an individual fails to provide evidence of citizenship, they are sent to detention centers for eventual deportation.
- Burden of Proof lies with the accused person, who must prove their citizenship; failure to appear or provide proof results in a declaration as a foreigner.
- Individuals can challenge FT decisions in the Gauhati High Court and, if dissatisfied, appeal to the Supreme Court.
- Post 2019 amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, state and central govts can establish FTs.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- Foreigners tribunal were created by Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964 under Foreigners Act, 1946.
- Post-independence, they were recognised in 1964 by an executive order of the Home Ministry.
- Under Section 2(a) of the 1946 Act, “a foreigner means a person who is not a citizen of India”.
- Thus, it will apply only to persons against whom there is strong evidence of being a foreigner. etic
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Though applicable across India, FTs are currently operational only in Assam. In other states, local courts handle such cases under the Foreigners Act of 1946.
- FTs are unique to Assam and handle cases of suspected illegal immigrants, especially those excluded from the National Register of Citizens (NRC).
Statement 2 and 3 are correct
- FTs must dispose of cases within 60 days. If an individual fails to provide evidence of citizenship, they are sent to detention centers for eventual deportation.
- Burden of Proof lies with the accused person, who must prove their citizenship; failure to appear or provide proof results in a declaration as a foreigner.
- Individuals can challenge FT decisions in the Gauhati High Court and, if dissatisfied, appeal to the Supreme Court.
- Post 2019 amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, state and central govts can establish FTs.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Prelims – PIN} Consider the following statements about Prince Karim al-Husseini, the Aga Khan IV:
- India honoured the Aga Khan with Padma Vibhushan in 2015 for his contributions.
- He oversaw restoration projects of Humayun’s Tomb and the Quli Qutb Shahi Tombs.
- He headed philanthropic works impacting healthcare, education, and rural development in over 30 countries.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
All statements are correct
- Prince Karim al-Husseini, the Aga Khan IV ,was the 49th hereditary Imam of the Nizari Ismaili Shia Muslims, renowned for his philanthropy, leadership, and efforts to bridge cultural divides.
- He Headed the Aga Khan Development Network (AKDN), impacting healthcare, education, and rural development in over 30 countries.
- He Promoted Muslim culture through the Aga Khan Trust for Culture.
- He held a near-divine status as Imam, leading the Nizari Ismailis with a modern, progressive outlook.
- He received India’s Padma Vibhushan in 2015 for his contributions.
- He oversaw major restoration projects like the Humayun’s Tomb and the Quli Qutb Shahi Tombs in India.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All statements are correct
- Prince Karim al-Husseini, the Aga Khan IV ,was the 49th hereditary Imam of the Nizari Ismaili Shia Muslims, renowned for his philanthropy, leadership, and efforts to bridge cultural divides.
- He Headed the Aga Khan Development Network (AKDN), impacting healthcare, education, and rural development in over 30 countries.
- He Promoted Muslim culture through the Aga Khan Trust for Culture.
- He held a near-divine status as Imam, leading the Nizari Ismailis with a modern, progressive outlook.
- He received India’s Padma Vibhushan in 2015 for his contributions.
- He oversaw major restoration projects like the Humayun’s Tomb and the Quli Qutb Shahi Tombs in India.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All statements are correct
- Prince Karim al-Husseini, the Aga Khan IV ,was the 49th hereditary Imam of the Nizari Ismaili Shia Muslims, renowned for his philanthropy, leadership, and efforts to bridge cultural divides.
- He Headed the Aga Khan Development Network (AKDN), impacting healthcare, education, and rural development in over 30 countries.
- He Promoted Muslim culture through the Aga Khan Trust for Culture.
- He held a near-divine status as Imam, leading the Nizari Ismailis with a modern, progressive outlook.
- He received India’s Padma Vibhushan in 2015 for his contributions.
- He oversaw major restoration projects like the Humayun’s Tomb and the Quli Qutb Shahi Tombs in India.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {Envi – Degradation} Consider the following statements about Flue Gas Desulphurisation:
- FGD systems can remove up to 99% of SO2 from the emissions of fossil fuel-burning plants.
- The MoFECC guidelines require coal-based power plants to install flue-gas desulfurisation systems.
- Around 20% of India’s coal-based capacity has installed Flue Gas Desulphurisation plants.
- MoEFCC has recently extended the SO₂ emission compliance deadline by five years from 31st December 2024.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is used for removal of Sulphur Dioxide from flue gas produced at coal-fired thermal power plants.
- SO2 emission from coal burning can be neutralized using sodium or calcium based alkaline reagents such as lime, limestone, Sodium Hydroxide, ammonia, sea water, Calcium Carbonate, Sodium bicarbonate, etc. FGD use this principle.
- FGD systems are designed to remove up to 99% of SO2 and particulate matter from the emissions of fossil fuel-burning plants.
- It utilises various methods to filter emissions, including wet scrubbing and dry methods.
- The MoFECC guidelines require coal-based power plants to install flue-gas desulfurisation systems.
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- In 2015 MoEFCC introduced new emission norms, tightening particulate matter (PM) standards and introducing SO₂ norms for the first time.
- Initial deadline for compliance was 2017, but extensions followed due to implementation challenges.
- Recently, MoEFCC extended the SO₂ emission compliance deadline by three years from 31 December 2024, impacting 20 GW of thermal plants in high-density areas.
- The latest revision (December 2024) marks the fourth extension.
- Only 22 GW (~8%) of India’s coal-based capacity has installed Flue Gas Desulphurisation plants, despite deadlines.
- 102 GW (~50% of total thermal capacity) is in advanced stages of FGD installation.
- There are no publicly available data to verify compliance, raising concerns over regulatory oversight.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is used for removal of Sulphur Dioxide from flue gas produced at coal-fired thermal power plants.
- SO2 emission from coal burning can be neutralized using sodium or calcium based alkaline reagents such as lime, limestone, Sodium Hydroxide, ammonia, sea water, Calcium Carbonate, Sodium bicarbonate, etc. FGD use this principle.
- FGD systems are designed to remove up to 99% of SO2 and particulate matter from the emissions of fossil fuel-burning plants.
- It utilises various methods to filter emissions, including wet scrubbing and dry methods.
- The MoFECC guidelines require coal-based power plants to install flue-gas desulfurisation systems.
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- In 2015 MoEFCC introduced new emission norms, tightening particulate matter (PM) standards and introducing SO₂ norms for the first time.
- Initial deadline for compliance was 2017, but extensions followed due to implementation challenges.
- Recently, MoEFCC extended the SO₂ emission compliance deadline by three years from 31 December 2024, impacting 20 GW of thermal plants in high-density areas.
- The latest revision (December 2024) marks the fourth extension.
- Only 22 GW (~8%) of India’s coal-based capacity has installed Flue Gas Desulphurisation plants, despite deadlines.
- 102 GW (~50% of total thermal capacity) is in advanced stages of FGD installation.
- There are no publicly available data to verify compliance, raising concerns over regulatory oversight.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is used for removal of Sulphur Dioxide from flue gas produced at coal-fired thermal power plants.
- SO2 emission from coal burning can be neutralized using sodium or calcium based alkaline reagents such as lime, limestone, Sodium Hydroxide, ammonia, sea water, Calcium Carbonate, Sodium bicarbonate, etc. FGD use this principle.
- FGD systems are designed to remove up to 99% of SO2 and particulate matter from the emissions of fossil fuel-burning plants.
- It utilises various methods to filter emissions, including wet scrubbing and dry methods.
- The MoFECC guidelines require coal-based power plants to install flue-gas desulfurisation systems.
Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect
- In 2015 MoEFCC introduced new emission norms, tightening particulate matter (PM) standards and introducing SO₂ norms for the first time.
- Initial deadline for compliance was 2017, but extensions followed due to implementation challenges.
- Recently, MoEFCC extended the SO₂ emission compliance deadline by three years from 31 December 2024, impacting 20 GW of thermal plants in high-density areas.
- The latest revision (December 2024) marks the fourth extension.
- Only 22 GW (~8%) of India’s coal-based capacity has installed Flue Gas Desulphurisation plants, despite deadlines.
- 102 GW (~50% of total thermal capacity) is in advanced stages of FGD installation.
- There are no publicly available data to verify compliance, raising concerns over regulatory oversight.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Prelims – In News} In the context of the renaming of Fort William to Vijay Durg, consider the following:
- Statement I: The renaming of colonial-era military structures in India reflects a broader effort to Indianise military traditions.
- Statement II: The renaming of Fort William to Vijay Durg is inspired by a historic Maratha naval fort and reflects India’s efforts to highlight indigenous military heritage.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
- The Indian Army’s Eastern Command HQ, Fort William, in Kolkata, has been renamed Vijay Durg, re-flecting an ongoing effort to eliminate colonial vestiges within the military.
- The New Name Vijay Durg, inspired by a historic Maratha naval fort in Maharashtra, reflects Indianisation of military traditions, aiming to distance from colonial symbols.
- Architectural Features
- Design: Octagonal, brick-and-mortar construction, designed in a star-shaped fortification.
- Spans 70.9 acres with lush gardens, arched windows, and Georgian-Gothic styles.
- Defensive Purpose: Built for defense against cannon fire; not designed for explosive shelling.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
- The Indian Army’s Eastern Command HQ, Fort William, in Kolkata, has been renamed Vijay Durg, re-flecting an ongoing effort to eliminate colonial vestiges within the military.
- The New Name Vijay Durg, inspired by a historic Maratha naval fort in Maharashtra, reflects Indianisation of military traditions, aiming to distance from colonial symbols.
- Architectural Features
- Design: Octagonal, brick-and-mortar construction, designed in a star-shaped fortification.
- Spans 70.9 acres with lush gardens, arched windows, and Georgian-Gothic styles.
- Defensive Purpose: Built for defense against cannon fire; not designed for explosive shelling.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
- The Indian Army’s Eastern Command HQ, Fort William, in Kolkata, has been renamed Vijay Durg, re-flecting an ongoing effort to eliminate colonial vestiges within the military.
- The New Name Vijay Durg, inspired by a historic Maratha naval fort in Maharashtra, reflects Indianisation of military traditions, aiming to distance from colonial symbols.
- Architectural Features
- Design: Octagonal, brick-and-mortar construction, designed in a star-shaped fortification.
- Spans 70.9 acres with lush gardens, arched windows, and Georgian-Gothic styles.
- Defensive Purpose: Built for defense against cannon fire; not designed for explosive shelling.
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {S&T – Defence} With reference to the Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicle (ICV), consider the following statements:
- It is an eight-wheeled armoured vehicle designed for rapid deployment in counter-insurgency operations.
- It is capable of being airlifted by Chinook helicopters, making it suitable for high-altitude operations.
- The Stryker ICV has a maximum operational range of over 800 km.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The India-U.S. defence cooperation advances with a focus on the co-production of Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles (ICV) and the evaluation of Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM).
- The Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicle (ICV) is an eight-wheeled armoured vehicle designed for rapid deployment in counter-insurgency operations and high-altitude warfare.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Stryker ICV can be airlifted by Chinook helicopters, enabling deployment in difficult terrains such as Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Stryker ICV has a maximum operational range of 483 km, not over 800 km.
- Other Features
- V-hull for mine and blast protection.
- 30 mm cannon and 105 mm mobile gun.
- Composite armour with ceramic tiles for troop protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The India-U.S. defence cooperation advances with a focus on the co-production of Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles (ICV) and the evaluation of Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM).
- The Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicle (ICV) is an eight-wheeled armoured vehicle designed for rapid deployment in counter-insurgency operations and high-altitude warfare.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Stryker ICV can be airlifted by Chinook helicopters, enabling deployment in difficult terrains such as Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Stryker ICV has a maximum operational range of 483 km, not over 800 km.
- Other Features
- V-hull for mine and blast protection.
- 30 mm cannon and 105 mm mobile gun.
- Composite armour with ceramic tiles for troop protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The India-U.S. defence cooperation advances with a focus on the co-production of Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles (ICV) and the evaluation of Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM).
- The Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicle (ICV) is an eight-wheeled armoured vehicle designed for rapid deployment in counter-insurgency operations and high-altitude warfare.
Statement 2 is correct
- The Stryker ICV can be airlifted by Chinook helicopters, enabling deployment in difficult terrains such as Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- The Stryker ICV has a maximum operational range of 483 km, not over 800 km.
- Other Features
- V-hull for mine and blast protection.
- 30 mm cannon and 105 mm mobile gun.
- Composite armour with ceramic tiles for troop protection.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Envi – CC} With reference to Arctic warming, consider the following statements:
- The Albedo effect contributes to Arctic warming by increasing the reflectivity of ocean surfaces.
- The weak vertical mixing of air in the Arctic traps heat near the surface, leading to rapid temperature rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Arctic experienced a record temperature rise in February 2025, with temperatures exceeding 20°C above average, triggering concerns about its impact on global climate systems.
- Temperature at the North Pole surged by over 20°C above average, marking an extreme warming event.
- Arctic Warming Rate: Since 1979, the Arctic has warmed 3.8 times faster than the global average, significantly outpacing the 1.3°C increase seen globally since the late 19th century.
- The Arctic acts as a “refrigerator” for the planet, helping cool the Earth. Its rapid warming disrupts this crucial role, threatening the stability of global climate patterns.
- The Albedo effect does not increase reflectivity. Instead, melting sea ice reduces reflectivity, causing the darker ocean surface to absorb more heat, which accelerates Arctic warming.
Statement 2 is correct
- The weak vertical mixing of air traps heat near the surface, preventing it from dissipating into higher altitudes, thereby leading to rapid temperature rise in the Arctic.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Arctic experienced a record temperature rise in February 2025, with temperatures exceeding 20°C above average, triggering concerns about its impact on global climate systems.
- Temperature at the North Pole surged by over 20°C above average, marking an extreme warming event.
- Arctic Warming Rate: Since 1979, the Arctic has warmed 3.8 times faster than the global average, significantly outpacing the 1.3°C increase seen globally since the late 19th century.
- The Arctic acts as a “refrigerator” for the planet, helping cool the Earth. Its rapid warming disrupts this crucial role, threatening the stability of global climate patterns.
- The Albedo effect does not increase reflectivity. Instead, melting sea ice reduces reflectivity, causing the darker ocean surface to absorb more heat, which accelerates Arctic warming.
Statement 2 is correct
- The weak vertical mixing of air traps heat near the surface, preventing it from dissipating into higher altitudes, thereby leading to rapid temperature rise in the Arctic.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Arctic experienced a record temperature rise in February 2025, with temperatures exceeding 20°C above average, triggering concerns about its impact on global climate systems.
- Temperature at the North Pole surged by over 20°C above average, marking an extreme warming event.
- Arctic Warming Rate: Since 1979, the Arctic has warmed 3.8 times faster than the global average, significantly outpacing the 1.3°C increase seen globally since the late 19th century.
- The Arctic acts as a “refrigerator” for the planet, helping cool the Earth. Its rapid warming disrupts this crucial role, threatening the stability of global climate patterns.
- The Albedo effect does not increase reflectivity. Instead, melting sea ice reduces reflectivity, causing the darker ocean surface to absorb more heat, which accelerates Arctic warming.
Statement 2 is correct
- The weak vertical mixing of air traps heat near the surface, preventing it from dissipating into higher altitudes, thereby leading to rapid temperature rise in the Arctic.
Answer: (b) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {IC – FRs} With reference to parole in India, consider the following statements:
- Parole is a temporary, time-bound release of a prisoner with suspension of sentence, generally granted for emergency situations.
- There are specific provisions related to parole in the Prisons Act, 1894.
- In India, parole is granted by the Divisional Commissioner.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Delhi HC is hearing a case challenging Delhi Prison Rules of 2018 examining whether denying furlough despite good conduct violates the reformative approach of criminal justice system.
Statement 1 is correct
- Parole refers to a prisoner’s timebound release with suspension of sentence for short-term situations like illness or family emergencies, before the end of a sentence, in exchange for good behavior.
- It is the privilege given to the prisoners to return to society and socialize with families and friends.
- It can last up to one month and can be extended under special circumstances.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is correct
- In India, parole is granted by the Divisional Commissioner.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
- Delhi HC is hearing a case challenging Delhi Prison Rules of 2018 examining whether denying furlough despite good conduct violates the reformative approach of criminal justice system.
Statement 1 is correct
- Parole refers to a prisoner’s timebound release with suspension of sentence for short-term situations like illness or family emergencies, before the end of a sentence, in exchange for good behavior.
- It is the privilege given to the prisoners to return to society and socialize with families and friends.
- It can last up to one month and can be extended under special circumstances.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is correct
- In India, parole is granted by the Divisional Commissioner.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
- Delhi HC is hearing a case challenging Delhi Prison Rules of 2018 examining whether denying furlough despite good conduct violates the reformative approach of criminal justice system.
Statement 1 is correct
- Parole refers to a prisoner’s timebound release with suspension of sentence for short-term situations like illness or family emergencies, before the end of a sentence, in exchange for good behavior.
- It is the privilege given to the prisoners to return to society and socialize with families and friends.
- It can last up to one month and can be extended under special circumstances.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- There are no specific provisions related to Parole and Furlough in the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prisoners Act, 1900.
- Section 59 of the Prisons Act empowers States to make rules for the shortening of sentences as rewards for good conduct.
Statement 3 is correct
- In India, parole is granted by the Divisional Commissioner.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Hard
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3 of 8 questions answered correctly
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Some of the answers in past few tests being marked as incorrect though being correct also explanation provided has shown the correct answer however the answer was declared to be incorrect.