
April 25 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 25 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {Envi – Laws} Which of the following statements regarding the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 establishes a 3-tier system with National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level; State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) at the state level; Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) at the local level.
- Chairperson: Equivalent to GoI Secretary, appointed by Central Govt, tenure of 3 years, re-appointment allowed till age 65. If on deputation/short term contract, s/he shouldn’t be below rank of Additional Secretary to GoI. Chairperson can resign by giving 1month written notice to Central Govt.
All other options are correct
- Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Approval:
- Mandatory prior approval of NBA before grant of IPR (domestic/international) involving Indian biological resources or traditional knowledge.
- Approval via agreement on mutually agreed terms; NBA to be notified within 45 days of IPR grant.
- Functions: Maintains biodiversity databases, administers National Biodiversity Fund (NBF) established under 2002 Act, approves biodiversity-related agreements, provides technical guidance.
- Access Procedure for Biological Resources:
- Online applications via web portal for research, bio-survey, bio-utilization and for commercial use.
- Fee paid digitally to the NBF.
- Approvals/rejections are publicized on NBA website.
- Access may be restricted if it involves threatened/endemic species; Harms local communities or causes genetic erosion; Violates
Answer: (a) The Minister of Environment and Forests serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Authority; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 establishes a 3-tier system with National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level; State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) at the state level; Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) at the local level.
- Chairperson: Equivalent to GoI Secretary, appointed by Central Govt, tenure of 3 years, re-appointment allowed till age 65. If on deputation/short term contract, s/he shouldn’t be below rank of Additional Secretary to GoI. Chairperson can resign by giving 1month written notice to Central Govt.
All other options are correct
- Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Approval:
- Mandatory prior approval of NBA before grant of IPR (domestic/international) involving Indian biological resources or traditional knowledge.
- Approval via agreement on mutually agreed terms; NBA to be notified within 45 days of IPR grant.
- Functions: Maintains biodiversity databases, administers National Biodiversity Fund (NBF) established under 2002 Act, approves biodiversity-related agreements, provides technical guidance.
- Access Procedure for Biological Resources:
- Online applications via web portal for research, bio-survey, bio-utilization and for commercial use.
- Fee paid digitally to the NBF.
- Approvals/rejections are publicized on NBA website.
- Access may be restricted if it involves threatened/endemic species; Harms local communities or causes genetic erosion; Violates
Answer: (a) The Minister of Environment and Forests serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Authority; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 establishes a 3-tier system with National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level; State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) at the state level; Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) at the local level.
- Chairperson: Equivalent to GoI Secretary, appointed by Central Govt, tenure of 3 years, re-appointment allowed till age 65. If on deputation/short term contract, s/he shouldn’t be below rank of Additional Secretary to GoI. Chairperson can resign by giving 1month written notice to Central Govt.
All other options are correct
- Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Approval:
- Mandatory prior approval of NBA before grant of IPR (domestic/international) involving Indian biological resources or traditional knowledge.
- Approval via agreement on mutually agreed terms; NBA to be notified within 45 days of IPR grant.
- Functions: Maintains biodiversity databases, administers National Biodiversity Fund (NBF) established under 2002 Act, approves biodiversity-related agreements, provides technical guidance.
- Access Procedure for Biological Resources:
- Online applications via web portal for research, bio-survey, bio-utilization and for commercial use.
- Fee paid digitally to the NBF.
- Approvals/rejections are publicized on NBA website.
- Access may be restricted if it involves threatened/endemic species; Harms local communities or causes genetic erosion; Violates
Answer: (a) The Minister of Environment and Forests serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Authority; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {IR – International Organisations} Consider the following countries:
- China
- Nepal
- India
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
How many of the above are member states of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
Correct
Explanation
Options 2, 3 and 4 are correct and options 1 and 5 are incorrect
- SAARC is an economic and political regional organisation of countries in South Asia.
- Established: With the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
- Member States (8): Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
- Observer Members: EU, Australia, China, Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar & USA.
- Secretariat: Kathmandu
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Options 2, 3 and 4 are correct and options 1 and 5 are incorrect
- SAARC is an economic and political regional organisation of countries in South Asia.
- Established: With the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
- Member States (8): Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
- Observer Members: EU, Australia, China, Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar & USA.
- Secretariat: Kathmandu
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Options 2, 3 and 4 are correct and options 1 and 5 are incorrect
- SAARC is an economic and political regional organisation of countries in South Asia.
- Established: With the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
- Member States (8): Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
- Observer Members: EU, Australia, China, Iran, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mauritius, Myanmar & USA.
- Secretariat: Kathmandu
Answer: (b) Only three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Polity – IC – Judiciary} Parens Patriae Doctrine recently seen in news describes Which of the following?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Parens Patriae: Latin term meaning “parent of the nation”, empowering the state or courts to act as guardians for citizens unable to care for themselves. It reflects a sovereign duty to protect vulnerable individuals’ rights, dignity, and welfare lacking.
- Originated in English common law, where the Crown acted as guardian for those unable to care for themselves. Gradually adopted worldwide to protect minors, persons with disabilities, mentally ill individuals and other incapacitated persons.
- Constitutional, Legal and Judicial Backing in India:
- Article 226: High Courts exercise extraordinary jurisdiction to protect fundamental rights and public interest under this provision.
- Article 21: Parens Patriae aligns with the Right to Life and Dignity, reinforcing the state’s duty to protect vulnerable populations.
- Social Justice Framework: Complements welfare legislation like Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 and Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
- Madras High Court invoked Parens Patriae doctrine for environmental protection, empowering the state to act as a guardian of nature’s rights.
- Judicial precedents include directions to both central & state govts to protect legal entities like animals (Haryana, 2018), Ganga and Yamuna rivers (2017), and Sukhna Lake (2020).
Answer: (b) The doctrine empowering the State or courts to act as guardians for those incapable of protecting themselves; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Parens Patriae: Latin term meaning “parent of the nation”, empowering the state or courts to act as guardians for citizens unable to care for themselves. It reflects a sovereign duty to protect vulnerable individuals’ rights, dignity, and welfare lacking.
- Originated in English common law, where the Crown acted as guardian for those unable to care for themselves. Gradually adopted worldwide to protect minors, persons with disabilities, mentally ill individuals and other incapacitated persons.
- Constitutional, Legal and Judicial Backing in India:
- Article 226: High Courts exercise extraordinary jurisdiction to protect fundamental rights and public interest under this provision.
- Article 21: Parens Patriae aligns with the Right to Life and Dignity, reinforcing the state’s duty to protect vulnerable populations.
- Social Justice Framework: Complements welfare legislation like Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 and Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
- Madras High Court invoked Parens Patriae doctrine for environmental protection, empowering the state to act as a guardian of nature’s rights.
- Judicial precedents include directions to both central & state govts to protect legal entities like animals (Haryana, 2018), Ganga and Yamuna rivers (2017), and Sukhna Lake (2020).
Answer: (b) The doctrine empowering the State or courts to act as guardians for those incapable of protecting themselves; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- Parens Patriae: Latin term meaning “parent of the nation”, empowering the state or courts to act as guardians for citizens unable to care for themselves. It reflects a sovereign duty to protect vulnerable individuals’ rights, dignity, and welfare lacking.
- Originated in English common law, where the Crown acted as guardian for those unable to care for themselves. Gradually adopted worldwide to protect minors, persons with disabilities, mentally ill individuals and other incapacitated persons.
- Constitutional, Legal and Judicial Backing in India:
- Article 226: High Courts exercise extraordinary jurisdiction to protect fundamental rights and public interest under this provision.
- Article 21: Parens Patriae aligns with the Right to Life and Dignity, reinforcing the state’s duty to protect vulnerable populations.
- Social Justice Framework: Complements welfare legislation like Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 and Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
- Madras High Court invoked Parens Patriae doctrine for environmental protection, empowering the state to act as a guardian of nature’s rights.
- Judicial precedents include directions to both central & state govts to protect legal entities like animals (Haryana, 2018), Ganga and Yamuna rivers (2017), and Sukhna Lake (2020).
Answer: (b) The doctrine empowering the State or courts to act as guardians for those incapable of protecting themselves; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {S&T – Space} Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG):
- Statement I: QCG is a highly sensitive instrument that uses quantum principles to detect minute changes in gravitational acceleration.
- Statement II: Atoms are cooled to near absolute zero in QCG, and lasers manipulate their behaviour in free-fall to measure gravitational forces with extreme precision.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- NASA is developing first space-based quantum sensor to measure Earth’s gravity.
- Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG):
- It is a highly sensitive instrument that uses quantum principles to detect minute changes in gravitational acceleration.
- QGG can detect gravitational variations as small as 10⁻¹⁵ m/s², surpassing traditional gravity sensors.
- Miniaturised: Unlike traditional instruments, the QGG sensor is compact and lightweight, about the size of a small washing machine. This reduces launch costs, making it ideal for space missions.
- Durability: Uses atoms instead of mechanical parts, making it less sensitive to environmental conditions.
- Working Principle of QGG:
- Atom Interferometry: Atoms are cooled to near absolute zero, and lasers manipulate their behaviour in free-fall to measure gravitational forces with extreme precision.
- Detection of Gravity Changes: The sensor identifies gravitational shifts caused by variations in mass distribution, such as mountains, tunnels, or hydrocarbon deposits.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- NASA is developing first space-based quantum sensor to measure Earth’s gravity.
- Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG):
- It is a highly sensitive instrument that uses quantum principles to detect minute changes in gravitational acceleration.
- QGG can detect gravitational variations as small as 10⁻¹⁵ m/s², surpassing traditional gravity sensors.
- Miniaturised: Unlike traditional instruments, the QGG sensor is compact and lightweight, about the size of a small washing machine. This reduces launch costs, making it ideal for space missions.
- Durability: Uses atoms instead of mechanical parts, making it less sensitive to environmental conditions.
- Working Principle of QGG:
- Atom Interferometry: Atoms are cooled to near absolute zero, and lasers manipulate their behaviour in free-fall to measure gravitational forces with extreme precision.
- Detection of Gravity Changes: The sensor identifies gravitational shifts caused by variations in mass distribution, such as mountains, tunnels, or hydrocarbon deposits.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- NASA is developing first space-based quantum sensor to measure Earth’s gravity.
- Quantum Gravity Gradiometer (QGG):
- It is a highly sensitive instrument that uses quantum principles to detect minute changes in gravitational acceleration.
- QGG can detect gravitational variations as small as 10⁻¹⁵ m/s², surpassing traditional gravity sensors.
- Miniaturised: Unlike traditional instruments, the QGG sensor is compact and lightweight, about the size of a small washing machine. This reduces launch costs, making it ideal for space missions.
- Durability: Uses atoms instead of mechanical parts, making it less sensitive to environmental conditions.
- Working Principle of QGG:
- Atom Interferometry: Atoms are cooled to near absolute zero, and lasers manipulate their behaviour in free-fall to measure gravitational forces with extreme precision.
- Detection of Gravity Changes: The sensor identifies gravitational shifts caused by variations in mass distribution, such as mountains, tunnels, or hydrocarbon deposits.
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Envi – Conservation} Consider the following statements regarding the Biodiversity Heritage Sites:
- Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 empowers Central Government to notify areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
- Declaration of an area as Biodiversity Heritage Sites does not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities.
- Nallur Tamarind Grove is in Bengaluru (Karnataka) was first Biodiversity Heritage Site of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Tamil Nadu has notified Kasampatty (Veera Kovil) sacred grove and a biodiversity hotspot as a Biodiversity Heritage Site.
- Kasampatty, located near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest in Kasampatty village (Dindigul district), becomes 2nd Biodiversity Heritage Site in Tamil Nadu after Arittapatti in Madurai.
- India’s first BHS was Nallur Tamarind Grove is in Bengaluru (Karnataka).
- Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):
- BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and marine having rich biodiversity comprising any of the following components:
- Species richness
- High endemism
- Presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, and species of evolutionary significance
- Presence of wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species
- Past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds
- Significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values important for the maintenance of cultural diversity
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Declaration:
- Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as BHS.
- State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) may invite suggestion (or consider those already coming from communities) for declaration of BHSs, through BMCs and other relevant community institutions including gram sabhas, panchayat etc.
- Declaration of an area as BHS does not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities.
- Management & Monitoring:
- Management: The Biodiversity Management Committee or other appropriate institution as determined by relevant local body in the absence of BMCs.
- Monitoring of BHS: There may be a State-level Monitoring Committee constituted by the SBB.
Answer: (b) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Tamil Nadu has notified Kasampatty (Veera Kovil) sacred grove and a biodiversity hotspot as a Biodiversity Heritage Site.
- Kasampatty, located near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest in Kasampatty village (Dindigul district), becomes 2nd Biodiversity Heritage Site in Tamil Nadu after Arittapatti in Madurai.
- India’s first BHS was Nallur Tamarind Grove is in Bengaluru (Karnataka).
- Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):
- BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and marine having rich biodiversity comprising any of the following components:
- Species richness
- High endemism
- Presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, and species of evolutionary significance
- Presence of wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species
- Past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds
- Significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values important for the maintenance of cultural diversity
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Declaration:
- Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as BHS.
- State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) may invite suggestion (or consider those already coming from communities) for declaration of BHSs, through BMCs and other relevant community institutions including gram sabhas, panchayat etc.
- Declaration of an area as BHS does not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities.
- Management & Monitoring:
- Management: The Biodiversity Management Committee or other appropriate institution as determined by relevant local body in the absence of BMCs.
- Monitoring of BHS: There may be a State-level Monitoring Committee constituted by the SBB.
Answer: (b) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Tamil Nadu has notified Kasampatty (Veera Kovil) sacred grove and a biodiversity hotspot as a Biodiversity Heritage Site.
- Kasampatty, located near the Alagarmalai Reserve Forest in Kasampatty village (Dindigul district), becomes 2nd Biodiversity Heritage Site in Tamil Nadu after Arittapatti in Madurai.
- India’s first BHS was Nallur Tamarind Grove is in Bengaluru (Karnataka).
- Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):
- BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and marine having rich biodiversity comprising any of the following components:
- Species richness
- High endemism
- Presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, and species of evolutionary significance
- Presence of wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species
- Past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds
- Significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values important for the maintenance of cultural diversity
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Declaration:
- Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify areas of biodiversity importance as BHS.
- State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) may invite suggestion (or consider those already coming from communities) for declaration of BHSs, through BMCs and other relevant community institutions including gram sabhas, panchayat etc.
- Declaration of an area as BHS does not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities.
- Management & Monitoring:
- Management: The Biodiversity Management Committee or other appropriate institution as determined by relevant local body in the absence of BMCs.
- Monitoring of BHS: There may be a State-level Monitoring Committee constituted by the SBB.
Answer: (b) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {IR – India-Pakistan} Recently, India has suspended the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) for the 1st time following the terrorist attack on tourists in Pahalgam. In this context, consider the following statements:
- The IWT signed between India and Pakistan in 1960 was brokered by the World Bank.
- According to the treaty, all the water of the “Eastern Rivers” of the Indus system shall be available for the “unrestricted use” of India.
- The Indus Waters Treaty lacks an exit clause, meaning neither India nor Pakistan can legally abrogate it unilaterally.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The IWT, signed between India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960, brokered by the World Bank.
- It was signed in Karachi by then Indian PM Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan.
- The treaty fixed and delimited the rights and obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus River system.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Provisions :
- Water Sharing:
- Eastern Rivers Water to India: All the water of the “Eastern Rivers” (Sutlej, Beas and Ravi) of the Indus system shall be available for the “unrestricted use” of India.
- Western Rivers Water to Pakistan: Pakistan shall receive water from the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).
- India is permitted limited use of these rivers for agricultural purposes and for constructing ‘run-of-the-river’ hydroelectric projects, which do not involve significant water storage.
- No Exit Clause: The Indus Waters Treaty lacks an exit clause, meaning neither India nor Pakistan can legally abrogate it unilaterally. Any modification to the treaty requires the consent of both parties.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The IWT, signed between India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960, brokered by the World Bank.
- It was signed in Karachi by then Indian PM Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan.
- The treaty fixed and delimited the rights and obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus River system.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Provisions :
- Water Sharing:
- Eastern Rivers Water to India: All the water of the “Eastern Rivers” (Sutlej, Beas and Ravi) of the Indus system shall be available for the “unrestricted use” of India.
- Western Rivers Water to Pakistan: Pakistan shall receive water from the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).
- India is permitted limited use of these rivers for agricultural purposes and for constructing ‘run-of-the-river’ hydroelectric projects, which do not involve significant water storage.
- No Exit Clause: The Indus Waters Treaty lacks an exit clause, meaning neither India nor Pakistan can legally abrogate it unilaterally. Any modification to the treaty requires the consent of both parties.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The IWT, signed between India and Pakistan on September 19, 1960, brokered by the World Bank.
- It was signed in Karachi by then Indian PM Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan.
- The treaty fixed and delimited the rights and obligations of both countries concerning the use of the waters of the Indus River system.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- Key Provisions :
- Water Sharing:
- Eastern Rivers Water to India: All the water of the “Eastern Rivers” (Sutlej, Beas and Ravi) of the Indus system shall be available for the “unrestricted use” of India.
- Western Rivers Water to Pakistan: Pakistan shall receive water from the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).
- India is permitted limited use of these rivers for agricultural purposes and for constructing ‘run-of-the-river’ hydroelectric projects, which do not involve significant water storage.
- No Exit Clause: The Indus Waters Treaty lacks an exit clause, meaning neither India nor Pakistan can legally abrogate it unilaterally. Any modification to the treaty requires the consent of both parties.
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {A&C – Religion – Buddhism} With reference to the Buddhas of Bamiyan, consider the following statements:
- They were constructed during the height of Mahayana Buddhism.
- They were patronized by the Kushan rulers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Buddhas of Bamiyan located in the Bamiyan Valley of central Afghanistan, northwest of Kabul.
- It lies along the ancient Silk Route, which historically facilitated trade and cultural exchange between India, China, Persia, and Central Asia. The valley served as a major Buddhist monastic centre from the 2nd century CE to the Islamic conquest in the 9th century CE.
- Construction period: Believed to have been built between the 4th and 6th centuries CE during the height of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Patronised by rulers of the Kushan and later the Hephthalite dynasty.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Buddhas of Bamiyan located in the Bamiyan Valley of central Afghanistan, northwest of Kabul.
- It lies along the ancient Silk Route, which historically facilitated trade and cultural exchange between India, China, Persia, and Central Asia. The valley served as a major Buddhist monastic centre from the 2nd century CE to the Islamic conquest in the 9th century CE.
- Construction period: Believed to have been built between the 4th and 6th centuries CE during the height of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Patronised by rulers of the Kushan and later the Hephthalite dynasty.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
- Buddhas of Bamiyan located in the Bamiyan Valley of central Afghanistan, northwest of Kabul.
- It lies along the ancient Silk Route, which historically facilitated trade and cultural exchange between India, China, Persia, and Central Asia. The valley served as a major Buddhist monastic centre from the 2nd century CE to the Islamic conquest in the 9th century CE.
- Construction period: Believed to have been built between the 4th and 6th centuries CE during the height of Mahayana Buddhism.
- Patronised by rulers of the Kushan and later the Hephthalite dynasty.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
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