
April 09 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
PMF IAS Impact: 40 Direct Hits in Prelims 2024 and 53 Direct Hits in Prelims 2025!
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 09 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {MoWCD – Schemes} Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN) Abhiyaan:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2018.
- Poshan Pakhwada is an annual event that focuses on improving nutrition across India through behaviour changes.
- POSHAN Abhiyaan focuses on the nutritional status of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children from 0-6 years of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) Abhiyaan was launched in March 2018.
- The focus of POSHAN Abhiyaan is to lay emphasis on the nutritional status of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children from 0-6 years of age.
- Aim: To address the challenges of malnutrition through a strategic shift in nutrition delivery.
- Implementation: Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with the scheme being implemented by States/UTs.
- Focusing on the aims of POSHAN Abhiyaan, Mission Poshan 2.0 (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0) has been launched as an integrated nutrition support program.
- The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Mission Poshan 2.0 during the 15th Finance Commission period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Statement 2 is correct
- Poshan Pakhwada is an annual event that focuses on improving nutrition across India, especially for women and children. It is a key part of the Poshan Abhiyaan.
- The 7th edition of Poshan Pakhwada will be observed from April 8 to 23, 2025.
- Poshan Tracker: An app that lets users track real-time progress on nutrition services at Anganwadi centres across the country is a key part of this initiative.
- Aim: To combat malnutrition through behaviour changes at individual, family, and community levels, highlighting 4 key areas:
- Emphasis on the first 1000 days of human life
- Popularization of the Beneficiary Module in the Poshan Tracker App.
- Effective management of malnutrition through the Community-Based Management of Acute Malnutrition (CMAM) module.
- Promotion of healthy lifestyles to address childhood obesity.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) Abhiyaan was launched in March 2018.
- The focus of POSHAN Abhiyaan is to lay emphasis on the nutritional status of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children from 0-6 years of age.
- Aim: To address the challenges of malnutrition through a strategic shift in nutrition delivery.
- Implementation: Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with the scheme being implemented by States/UTs.
- Focusing on the aims of POSHAN Abhiyaan, Mission Poshan 2.0 (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0) has been launched as an integrated nutrition support program.
- The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Mission Poshan 2.0 during the 15th Finance Commission period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Statement 2 is correct
- Poshan Pakhwada is an annual event that focuses on improving nutrition across India, especially for women and children. It is a key part of the Poshan Abhiyaan.
- The 7th edition of Poshan Pakhwada will be observed from April 8 to 23, 2025.
- Poshan Tracker: An app that lets users track real-time progress on nutrition services at Anganwadi centres across the country is a key part of this initiative.
- Aim: To combat malnutrition through behaviour changes at individual, family, and community levels, highlighting 4 key areas:
- Emphasis on the first 1000 days of human life
- Popularization of the Beneficiary Module in the Poshan Tracker App.
- Effective management of malnutrition through the Community-Based Management of Acute Malnutrition (CMAM) module.
- Promotion of healthy lifestyles to address childhood obesity.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
- POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) Abhiyaan was launched in March 2018.
- The focus of POSHAN Abhiyaan is to lay emphasis on the nutritional status of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children from 0-6 years of age.
- Aim: To address the challenges of malnutrition through a strategic shift in nutrition delivery.
- Implementation: Centrally Sponsored Scheme, with the scheme being implemented by States/UTs.
- Focusing on the aims of POSHAN Abhiyaan, Mission Poshan 2.0 (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0) has been launched as an integrated nutrition support program.
- The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Mission Poshan 2.0 during the 15th Finance Commission period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Statement 2 is correct
- Poshan Pakhwada is an annual event that focuses on improving nutrition across India, especially for women and children. It is a key part of the Poshan Abhiyaan.
- The 7th edition of Poshan Pakhwada will be observed from April 8 to 23, 2025.
- Poshan Tracker: An app that lets users track real-time progress on nutrition services at Anganwadi centres across the country is a key part of this initiative.
- Aim: To combat malnutrition through behaviour changes at individual, family, and community levels, highlighting 4 key areas:
- Emphasis on the first 1000 days of human life
- Popularization of the Beneficiary Module in the Poshan Tracker App.
- Effective management of malnutrition through the Community-Based Management of Acute Malnutrition (CMAM) module.
- Promotion of healthy lifestyles to address childhood obesity.
Answer: (c) All three; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {Social Sector – Health – Diseases} Consider the pairs:
Neglected Tropical Disease
Caused by
- River Blindness
Bacteria - Noma
Virus - Leprosy
Bacteria How many of the pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- River Blindness (Onchocerciasis) is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
- Spread: Transmits to humans by the repeated bites of infected blackflies that breed in flowing rivers.
- Symptoms: Severe itching, skin conditions, and visual impairment, including permanent blindness.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Noma also known as cancrumoris or gangrenous stomatitis, Noma is a severe gangrenous disease of the mouth and face with a mortality rate of approximately 90%.
- It is associated with extreme poverty, malnutrition and poor access to sanitation and oral hygiene.
- While the disease is not contagious, it prefers to attack when the body’s defences are weak.
- It starts in the mouth as bacteria-induced necrotizing gingivitis. It progresses to necrotizing periodontitis and then to necrotising stomatitis.
- Recently, WHO added Noma to its official list of neglected tropical diseases (NTD).
Pair 3 is correct
- Leprosy is a leading cause of permanent physical disability and has been classified as one of the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD).
- Also known as Hansen’s disease, it is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacterium, Mycobacterium Leprae.
- Transmission: Through contact with the infected person, transmission by the respiratory route, insects etc.
- It is not highly contagious. More than 85% infected population are non-infectious, and more than 99% population has natural immunity to leprosy.
- Incubation period: Usually takes about 3-5 years for symptoms to appear.
- Symptoms: Nerve damage in arms, legs, and skin; loss of sensation in the body; weakness of muscles; and poor eyesight.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- River Blindness (Onchocerciasis) is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
- Spread: Transmits to humans by the repeated bites of infected blackflies that breed in flowing rivers.
- Symptoms: Severe itching, skin conditions, and visual impairment, including permanent blindness.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Noma also known as cancrumoris or gangrenous stomatitis, Noma is a severe gangrenous disease of the mouth and face with a mortality rate of approximately 90%.
- It is associated with extreme poverty, malnutrition and poor access to sanitation and oral hygiene.
- While the disease is not contagious, it prefers to attack when the body’s defences are weak.
- It starts in the mouth as bacteria-induced necrotizing gingivitis. It progresses to necrotizing periodontitis and then to necrotising stomatitis.
- Recently, WHO added Noma to its official list of neglected tropical diseases (NTD).
Pair 3 is correct
- Leprosy is a leading cause of permanent physical disability and has been classified as one of the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD).
- Also known as Hansen’s disease, it is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacterium, Mycobacterium Leprae.
- Transmission: Through contact with the infected person, transmission by the respiratory route, insects etc.
- It is not highly contagious. More than 85% infected population are non-infectious, and more than 99% population has natural immunity to leprosy.
- Incubation period: Usually takes about 3-5 years for symptoms to appear.
- Symptoms: Nerve damage in arms, legs, and skin; loss of sensation in the body; weakness of muscles; and poor eyesight.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- River Blindness (Onchocerciasis) is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
- Spread: Transmits to humans by the repeated bites of infected blackflies that breed in flowing rivers.
- Symptoms: Severe itching, skin conditions, and visual impairment, including permanent blindness.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Noma also known as cancrumoris or gangrenous stomatitis, Noma is a severe gangrenous disease of the mouth and face with a mortality rate of approximately 90%.
- It is associated with extreme poverty, malnutrition and poor access to sanitation and oral hygiene.
- While the disease is not contagious, it prefers to attack when the body’s defences are weak.
- It starts in the mouth as bacteria-induced necrotizing gingivitis. It progresses to necrotizing periodontitis and then to necrotising stomatitis.
- Recently, WHO added Noma to its official list of neglected tropical diseases (NTD).
Pair 3 is correct
- Leprosy is a leading cause of permanent physical disability and has been classified as one of the Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD).
- Also known as Hansen’s disease, it is a chronic infectious disease caused by a bacterium, Mycobacterium Leprae.
- Transmission: Through contact with the infected person, transmission by the respiratory route, insects etc.
- It is not highly contagious. More than 85% infected population are non-infectious, and more than 99% population has natural immunity to leprosy.
- Incubation period: Usually takes about 3-5 years for symptoms to appear.
- Symptoms: Nerve damage in arms, legs, and skin; loss of sensation in the body; weakness of muscles; and poor eyesight.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Hard
-
Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {Social Sector – Health – Diseases} Which of the following is not a primary application of DNA barcoding?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- DNA barcoding is a way to identify a species by its genetic sequence.
- DNA from an organism is matched to a DNA barcode, a short DNA fragment from a specific gene.
- A DNA barcode is like a fingerprint for a type of organism.
- DNA barcodes are used in a variety of ways, including differentiating one species from another, identifying larval or juvenile stages, and describing new species.
- Hence DNA barcoding is primarily used for species identification and not directly for identifying genetic diseases.
Answer: (b) Identify genetic Disease; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- DNA barcoding is a way to identify a species by its genetic sequence.
- DNA from an organism is matched to a DNA barcode, a short DNA fragment from a specific gene.
- A DNA barcode is like a fingerprint for a type of organism.
- DNA barcodes are used in a variety of ways, including differentiating one species from another, identifying larval or juvenile stages, and describing new species.
- Hence DNA barcoding is primarily used for species identification and not directly for identifying genetic diseases.
Answer: (b) Identify genetic Disease; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- DNA barcoding is a way to identify a species by its genetic sequence.
- DNA from an organism is matched to a DNA barcode, a short DNA fragment from a specific gene.
- A DNA barcode is like a fingerprint for a type of organism.
- DNA barcodes are used in a variety of ways, including differentiating one species from another, identifying larval or juvenile stages, and describing new species.
- Hence DNA barcoding is primarily used for species identification and not directly for identifying genetic diseases.
Answer: (b) Identify genetic Disease; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Banking} Consider the following statements regarding RRBs (Regional Rural Banks):
- RRBs are Scheduled Commercial Banks operating in specific regions to serve rural needs.
- The Sponsor Bank holds 51% of the share of an RRB.
- RRBs are allowed to raise capital from sources beyond government and sponsor banks.
- RRBs must allocate 85% of their total lending to priority sectors within sub-targets.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- The Ministry of Finance has approved the amalgamation of 15 RRBs under the ‘One State-One RRB’ policy, effective May 1, 2025.
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs were created under the RRB Act, 1976, based on recommendations of the Narasimham Commit-tee on rural credit.
- First RRB: Prathama Grameen Bank, established on 2 October 1975.
- Nature: RRBs are Scheduled Commercial Banks operating in specific regions to serve rural needs.
- Regulation: Regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and supervised by NABARD.
- Management Structure: Governed by a Board of Directors comprising one Chairman, up to 3 Central Govt nominees, up to 2 State Govt nominees, and up to 3 nominees from sponsor bank.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Sponsor Banks: Each RRB is sponsored by a major public sector bank that provides capital, technology, and managerial support.
- Ownership Structure: 50% Central Government; 35% Sponsor Bank; 15% State Government.
Statement 3 is correct
- Sources of Funds: RRBs are funded through owned funds, public deposits, and borrowings from NAB-ARD, sponsor banks, SIDBI, National Housing Bank, and other approved institutions.
- RRB Act 2015 Amendment: RRBs can raise capital from sources beyond govt & sponsor banks.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Priority Sector Lending: As per RBI norms revised in 2016, RRBs must allocate 75% of their total lending to priority sectors within sub-targets.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Ministry of Finance has approved the amalgamation of 15 RRBs under the ‘One State-One RRB’ policy, effective May 1, 2025.
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs were created under the RRB Act, 1976, based on recommendations of the Narasimham Commit-tee on rural credit.
- First RRB: Prathama Grameen Bank, established on 2 October 1975.
- Nature: RRBs are Scheduled Commercial Banks operating in specific regions to serve rural needs.
- Regulation: Regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and supervised by NABARD.
- Management Structure: Governed by a Board of Directors comprising one Chairman, up to 3 Central Govt nominees, up to 2 State Govt nominees, and up to 3 nominees from sponsor bank.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Sponsor Banks: Each RRB is sponsored by a major public sector bank that provides capital, technology, and managerial support.
- Ownership Structure: 50% Central Government; 35% Sponsor Bank; 15% State Government.
Statement 3 is correct
- Sources of Funds: RRBs are funded through owned funds, public deposits, and borrowings from NAB-ARD, sponsor banks, SIDBI, National Housing Bank, and other approved institutions.
- RRB Act 2015 Amendment: RRBs can raise capital from sources beyond govt & sponsor banks.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Priority Sector Lending: As per RBI norms revised in 2016, RRBs must allocate 75% of their total lending to priority sectors within sub-targets.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Ministry of Finance has approved the amalgamation of 15 RRBs under the ‘One State-One RRB’ policy, effective May 1, 2025.
Statement 1 is correct
- RRBs were created under the RRB Act, 1976, based on recommendations of the Narasimham Commit-tee on rural credit.
- First RRB: Prathama Grameen Bank, established on 2 October 1975.
- Nature: RRBs are Scheduled Commercial Banks operating in specific regions to serve rural needs.
- Regulation: Regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and supervised by NABARD.
- Management Structure: Governed by a Board of Directors comprising one Chairman, up to 3 Central Govt nominees, up to 2 State Govt nominees, and up to 3 nominees from sponsor bank.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Sponsor Banks: Each RRB is sponsored by a major public sector bank that provides capital, technology, and managerial support.
- Ownership Structure: 50% Central Government; 35% Sponsor Bank; 15% State Government.
Statement 3 is correct
- Sources of Funds: RRBs are funded through owned funds, public deposits, and borrowings from NAB-ARD, sponsor banks, SIDBI, National Housing Bank, and other approved institutions.
- RRB Act 2015 Amendment: RRBs can raise capital from sources beyond govt & sponsor banks.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- Priority Sector Lending: As per RBI norms revised in 2016, RRBs must allocate 75% of their total lending to priority sectors within sub-targets.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {MoF– Schemes} Consider the following pairs:
Mudra loan category
Loan amount
- Shishu
Up to ₹1 lakh - Kishor
Above ₹1 lakh and up to ₹5 lakh - Tarun
Above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh How many pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- The PM Mudra Yojana completed 10 years.
- It is an initiative by the Ministry of Finance aimed at “Funding the Unfunded” micro enterprises and small businesses.
- Collateral-Free loans up to Rs 20 lakh are provided by Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
- MLIs include Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Non-Banking Finan-cial Companies (NBFCs) and Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs).
Pair 1 and 2 are incorrect but pair 3 is correct
- Types of loans:
- Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000.
- Kishor: Loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to 5 Lakh.
- Tarun: Loans above Rs. 5 lahks and up to 10 lahks.
- Tarun Plus: Loans above ₹10 lakh and up to ₹20 lakh (designed specifically for the Tarun category, who have previously availed and successfully repaid loans).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- The PM Mudra Yojana completed 10 years.
- It is an initiative by the Ministry of Finance aimed at “Funding the Unfunded” micro enterprises and small businesses.
- Collateral-Free loans up to Rs 20 lakh are provided by Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
- MLIs include Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Non-Banking Finan-cial Companies (NBFCs) and Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs).
Pair 1 and 2 are incorrect but pair 3 is correct
- Types of loans:
- Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000.
- Kishor: Loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to 5 Lakh.
- Tarun: Loans above Rs. 5 lahks and up to 10 lahks.
- Tarun Plus: Loans above ₹10 lakh and up to ₹20 lakh (designed specifically for the Tarun category, who have previously availed and successfully repaid loans).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- The PM Mudra Yojana completed 10 years.
- It is an initiative by the Ministry of Finance aimed at “Funding the Unfunded” micro enterprises and small businesses.
- Collateral-Free loans up to Rs 20 lakh are provided by Member Lending Institutions (MLIs).
- MLIs include Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Non-Banking Finan-cial Companies (NBFCs) and Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs).
Pair 1 and 2 are incorrect but pair 3 is correct
- Types of loans:
- Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000.
- Kishor: Loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to 5 Lakh.
- Tarun: Loans above Rs. 5 lahks and up to 10 lahks.
- Tarun Plus: Loans above ₹10 lakh and up to ₹20 lakh (designed specifically for the Tarun category, who have previously availed and successfully repaid loans).
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Envi – RE} With reference to India’s clean energy sector and global energy trends, consider the following statements:
- India became the third-largest wind and solar electricity generator in the world.
- In 2024, more than half of India’s electricity was generated from clean energy sources.
- India’s 500 GW non-fossil fuel target by 2030 is included in its official NDCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- As per Ember’s Global Electricity Review 2025, India overtook Germany in 2024 to become the third-largest wind and solar electricity generator.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- 22% of India’s electricity in 2024 came from clean sources (8% from hydropower and 10% from wind and solar combined).
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India’s Commitments:
- 50% Non-Fossil Capacity by 2030: Per India’s Nationally Determined Contributions to UNFCCC (2022).
- 500 GW Non-Fossil Fuel Capacity by 2030: Announced in 2021; though not part of NDCs, it remains a national planning benchmark.
- Inclusion in Energy Plans: Target reflected in official energy strategies (eg-14th National Electricity Plan).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- As per Ember’s Global Electricity Review 2025, India overtook Germany in 2024 to become the third-largest wind and solar electricity generator.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- 22% of India’s electricity in 2024 came from clean sources (8% from hydropower and 10% from wind and solar combined).
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India’s Commitments:
- 50% Non-Fossil Capacity by 2030: Per India’s Nationally Determined Contributions to UNFCCC (2022).
- 500 GW Non-Fossil Fuel Capacity by 2030: Announced in 2021; though not part of NDCs, it remains a national planning benchmark.
- Inclusion in Energy Plans: Target reflected in official energy strategies (eg-14th National Electricity Plan).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- As per Ember’s Global Electricity Review 2025, India overtook Germany in 2024 to become the third-largest wind and solar electricity generator.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- 22% of India’s electricity in 2024 came from clean sources (8% from hydropower and 10% from wind and solar combined).
Statement 3 is incorrect
- India’s Commitments:
- 50% Non-Fossil Capacity by 2030: Per India’s Nationally Determined Contributions to UNFCCC (2022).
- 500 GW Non-Fossil Fuel Capacity by 2030: Announced in 2021; though not part of NDCs, it remains a national planning benchmark.
- Inclusion in Energy Plans: Target reflected in official energy strategies (eg-14th National Electricity Plan).
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {S&T – Tech} The “Technology and Innovation Report 2025” was released by:
Correct
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, released by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
- Key Findings:
- By 2033, Artificial Intelligence (AI) will likely be the frontier technology with the largest market size, at around $4.8 trillion.
- Technological Divide: Access to AI infrastructure and expertise remains concentrated in a few economies. Only 100 firms, mainly in the U.S. and China, account for 40% of global corporate R&D spending.
- The use of AI has the potential to impact 40% of global employment. In advanced economies, 1/3rd of jobs are vulnerable to AI automation.
Answer: (c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD); Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, released by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
- Key Findings:
- By 2033, Artificial Intelligence (AI) will likely be the frontier technology with the largest market size, at around $4.8 trillion.
- Technological Divide: Access to AI infrastructure and expertise remains concentrated in a few economies. Only 100 firms, mainly in the U.S. and China, account for 40% of global corporate R&D spending.
- The use of AI has the potential to impact 40% of global employment. In advanced economies, 1/3rd of jobs are vulnerable to AI automation.
Answer: (c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD); Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (c) is correct
- The 2025 Technology and Innovation Report, released by UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
- Key Findings:
- By 2033, Artificial Intelligence (AI) will likely be the frontier technology with the largest market size, at around $4.8 trillion.
- Technological Divide: Access to AI infrastructure and expertise remains concentrated in a few economies. Only 100 firms, mainly in the U.S. and China, account for 40% of global corporate R&D spending.
- The use of AI has the potential to impact 40% of global employment. In advanced economies, 1/3rd of jobs are vulnerable to AI automation.
Answer: (c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD); Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Polity – IC – President} Under Article 201 of the Indian Constitution, when a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the President may exercise the following options:
- Give assent to the Bill
- Withhold assent to the Bill
- Return the Bill, if it is a Money Bill, for reconsideration by the State Legislature
- Refer the Bill to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- A bill passed by a state legislature can become an act only if it receives the assent of the governor or the President (in case the bill is reserved for the consideration of the President).
Statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 3 is incorrect
- Once a bill is reserved for the President, under Article 201, the President may:
- Give assent to the bill,
- Withhold assent, or
- Return the bill (if not a money bill) for reconsideration by the State Legislature.
- A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration, only non-Money Bills may be returned.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The President cannot refer a Bill to the Supreme Court under Article 201.
- Referral for advisory opinion is governed by Article 143.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- A bill passed by a state legislature can become an act only if it receives the assent of the governor or the President (in case the bill is reserved for the consideration of the President).
Statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 3 is incorrect
- Once a bill is reserved for the President, under Article 201, the President may:
- Give assent to the bill,
- Withhold assent, or
- Return the bill (if not a money bill) for reconsideration by the State Legislature.
- A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration, only non-Money Bills may be returned.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The President cannot refer a Bill to the Supreme Court under Article 201.
- Referral for advisory opinion is governed by Article 143.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- A bill passed by a state legislature can become an act only if it receives the assent of the governor or the President (in case the bill is reserved for the consideration of the President).
Statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 3 is incorrect
- Once a bill is reserved for the President, under Article 201, the President may:
- Give assent to the bill,
- Withhold assent, or
- Return the bill (if not a money bill) for reconsideration by the State Legislature.
- A Money Bill cannot be returned for reconsideration, only non-Money Bills may be returned.
Statement 4 is incorrect
- The President cannot refer a Bill to the Supreme Court under Article 201.
- Referral for advisory opinion is governed by Article 143.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
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