
April 05 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 05 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {A&C – Painting} Consider the following pairs:
Indian Painting Styles
Region
- Patachitra Painting
Maharashtra - Pithora Painting
Odissa - Warli Painting
Gujarat - Kalamkari Painting
Tamil Nadu How many of the pairs are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Patachitra Paintings:
- Region: Patachitra is believed to have originated in Odisha through the intricate style.
- Characteristics: Hand-painted works on cloth-based scrolls. The colours primarily used are natural and earthy, like blue, white, and red.
- Themes: Mythological scenes or traditional folklore.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Pithora Paintings:
- Region: Practiced by the Rathwa community in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
- Characteristics: It is created as an offering to Pithora, the God of food grains. The paint is made by mixing pigments with milk and liquor from the mahua tree and is applied using bamboo sticks, cotton, and wooden stencils.
- Traditionally done on walls that are characterised by 7 horses representing the seven hills that sur-round the area bordering Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, which is home to the Rathwa community.
- Themes: Daily life depictions, including elephants, musical instruments, festivals, and celebrations.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- Warli Paintings:
- Region: Unique to the Warli tribe of Maharashtra, reminiscent of prehistoric cave paintings.
- Created using rice paste on house walls made of Karvi sticks, layered with clay and cow dung.
- Themes: Depiction of daily life activities rather than mythological themes.
- GI Tag: Warli paintings received a GI tag in 2014.
Pair 4 is incorrect
- Kalamkari Paintings:
- Region: Originating in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, known for its intricate and delicate designs.
- Characteristics: The name ‘Kalamkari’ means ‘art made with a kalam (pen/brush).’ Traditionally, only three colours-black, red, and yellow were used.
- Themes: The Tree of Life and scenes from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Buddhist traditions.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Patachitra Paintings:
- Region: Patachitra is believed to have originated in Odisha through the intricate style.
- Characteristics: Hand-painted works on cloth-based scrolls. The colours primarily used are natural and earthy, like blue, white, and red.
- Themes: Mythological scenes or traditional folklore.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Pithora Paintings:
- Region: Practiced by the Rathwa community in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
- Characteristics: It is created as an offering to Pithora, the God of food grains. The paint is made by mixing pigments with milk and liquor from the mahua tree and is applied using bamboo sticks, cotton, and wooden stencils.
- Traditionally done on walls that are characterised by 7 horses representing the seven hills that sur-round the area bordering Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, which is home to the Rathwa community.
- Themes: Daily life depictions, including elephants, musical instruments, festivals, and celebrations.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- Warli Paintings:
- Region: Unique to the Warli tribe of Maharashtra, reminiscent of prehistoric cave paintings.
- Created using rice paste on house walls made of Karvi sticks, layered with clay and cow dung.
- Themes: Depiction of daily life activities rather than mythological themes.
- GI Tag: Warli paintings received a GI tag in 2014.
Pair 4 is incorrect
- Kalamkari Paintings:
- Region: Originating in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, known for its intricate and delicate designs.
- Characteristics: The name ‘Kalamkari’ means ‘art made with a kalam (pen/brush).’ Traditionally, only three colours-black, red, and yellow were used.
- Themes: The Tree of Life and scenes from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Buddhist traditions.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrect
- Patachitra Paintings:
- Region: Patachitra is believed to have originated in Odisha through the intricate style.
- Characteristics: Hand-painted works on cloth-based scrolls. The colours primarily used are natural and earthy, like blue, white, and red.
- Themes: Mythological scenes or traditional folklore.
Pair 2 is incorrect
- Pithora Paintings:
- Region: Practiced by the Rathwa community in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
- Characteristics: It is created as an offering to Pithora, the God of food grains. The paint is made by mixing pigments with milk and liquor from the mahua tree and is applied using bamboo sticks, cotton, and wooden stencils.
- Traditionally done on walls that are characterised by 7 horses representing the seven hills that sur-round the area bordering Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, which is home to the Rathwa community.
- Themes: Daily life depictions, including elephants, musical instruments, festivals, and celebrations.
Pair 3 is incorrect
- Warli Paintings:
- Region: Unique to the Warli tribe of Maharashtra, reminiscent of prehistoric cave paintings.
- Created using rice paste on house walls made of Karvi sticks, layered with clay and cow dung.
- Themes: Depiction of daily life activities rather than mythological themes.
- GI Tag: Warli paintings received a GI tag in 2014.
Pair 4 is incorrect
- Kalamkari Paintings:
- Region: Originating in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, known for its intricate and delicate designs.
- Characteristics: The name ‘Kalamkari’ means ‘art made with a kalam (pen/brush).’ Traditionally, only three colours-black, red, and yellow were used.
- Themes: The Tree of Life and scenes from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Buddhist traditions.
Answer: (d) All four; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Social Sector – Health – Issues} Consider the following statements about Fluoride:
- Boiling groundwater contaminated with fluoride is an effective method to reduce fluoride concentration.
- Water fluoridation is done to adjust fluoride concentration in community water supplies to prevent dental cavities.
- High levels of fluoride in groundwater are often due to geological conditions like granite deposits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- Fluoride:
- Nature: Naturally occurring, non-biodegradable mineral found in rocks, soil, air and water.
- Safe Limit: WHO prescribes 1.5 mg/L as the upper limit in drinking water; Bureau of Indian Standards prescribes 1.0 mg/L as desirable and 1.5 mg/L
- Geological Cause of Toxicity: High granite deposits leach fluoride into groundwater.
- Prevents tooth decay in small quantities; Excess intake leads to fluorosis affecting bones, joints & teeth.
- Fluorosis:
- A chronic, non-fatal disease caused by prolonged consumption of fluoride-contaminated water.
- Symptoms in Adults: Joint pain, bone deformities, muscle weakness, immobility.
- Symptoms in Children: Yellow-stained teeth, early signs of skeletal fluorosis.
- Health Advisories: Boiling groundwater is discouraged as it increases fluoride concentration; lemon and tamarind are suggested to reduce fluoride absorption.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fluoridation:
- Water fluoridation is the treatment of community water supplies for the purpose of adjusting the concentration of the free fluoride ion to the optimum level sufficient to reduce dental caries.
- Domestic Level Defluoridation: Mixing water for treatment with an adequate amount of aluminium sulfate (alum) solution, lime or sodium carbonate & bleaching powder depending upon its alkalinity (concentration of bicarbonates & carbonates in water) & fluoride contents.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- Fluoride:
- Nature: Naturally occurring, non-biodegradable mineral found in rocks, soil, air and water.
- Safe Limit: WHO prescribes 1.5 mg/L as the upper limit in drinking water; Bureau of Indian Standards prescribes 1.0 mg/L as desirable and 1.5 mg/L
- Geological Cause of Toxicity: High granite deposits leach fluoride into groundwater.
- Prevents tooth decay in small quantities; Excess intake leads to fluorosis affecting bones, joints & teeth.
- Fluorosis:
- A chronic, non-fatal disease caused by prolonged consumption of fluoride-contaminated water.
- Symptoms in Adults: Joint pain, bone deformities, muscle weakness, immobility.
- Symptoms in Children: Yellow-stained teeth, early signs of skeletal fluorosis.
- Health Advisories: Boiling groundwater is discouraged as it increases fluoride concentration; lemon and tamarind are suggested to reduce fluoride absorption.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fluoridation:
- Water fluoridation is the treatment of community water supplies for the purpose of adjusting the concentration of the free fluoride ion to the optimum level sufficient to reduce dental caries.
- Domestic Level Defluoridation: Mixing water for treatment with an adequate amount of aluminium sulfate (alum) solution, lime or sodium carbonate & bleaching powder depending upon its alkalinity (concentration of bicarbonates & carbonates in water) & fluoride contents.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct
- Fluoride:
- Nature: Naturally occurring, non-biodegradable mineral found in rocks, soil, air and water.
- Safe Limit: WHO prescribes 1.5 mg/L as the upper limit in drinking water; Bureau of Indian Standards prescribes 1.0 mg/L as desirable and 1.5 mg/L
- Geological Cause of Toxicity: High granite deposits leach fluoride into groundwater.
- Prevents tooth decay in small quantities; Excess intake leads to fluorosis affecting bones, joints & teeth.
- Fluorosis:
- A chronic, non-fatal disease caused by prolonged consumption of fluoride-contaminated water.
- Symptoms in Adults: Joint pain, bone deformities, muscle weakness, immobility.
- Symptoms in Children: Yellow-stained teeth, early signs of skeletal fluorosis.
- Health Advisories: Boiling groundwater is discouraged as it increases fluoride concentration; lemon and tamarind are suggested to reduce fluoride absorption.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fluoridation:
- Water fluoridation is the treatment of community water supplies for the purpose of adjusting the concentration of the free fluoride ion to the optimum level sufficient to reduce dental caries.
- Domestic Level Defluoridation: Mixing water for treatment with an adequate amount of aluminium sulfate (alum) solution, lime or sodium carbonate & bleaching powder depending upon its alkalinity (concentration of bicarbonates & carbonates in water) & fluoride contents.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {Vulnerable Sections – Elderly} Consider the following statements with respect to the Senior Citizens Act, 2007:
- It provides for the establishment of a tribunal where senior citizens can file complaints for maintenance if their children neglect or refuse to support them.
- The tribunal is mandated to resolve cases within 90 days, and senior citizens/parents have the right to appeal the decisions of the Maintenance Tribunal.
- It directs state governments to establish and maintain old age homes in at least half of the districts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (commonly referred to as the Senior Citizens Act) is an Indian law designed to ensure the well-being of elderly citizens.
Statement 1 is correct
- Key Provisions of the Act:
- Maintenance of Parents and Senior Citizens: Children (biological, adopted, or stepchildren) and legal heirs are obligated to provide maintenance. If a person is unable to maintain themselves, they can seek financial support from their children or relatives.
- Tribunal for Maintenance: Senior citizens can file complaints with a tribunal for maintenance if their children neglect or refuse to support them.
- The tribunal can order children to pay a monthly allowance (up to ₹10,000). The Act also provides for senior citizens/parents to appeal the decisions of the Maintenance Tribunal.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fast-track Disposal of Cases: The tribunal is required to resolve cases within 90 days.
- Protection of Senior Citizens’ Property: If a senior citizen transfers property to a relative with the condition of being cared for but is later neglected, the transfer can be legally revoked.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Old Age Homes: Directs state governments to establish and maintain old age homes in every district.
- Abandonment: Punishable with imprisonment of up to 3 months or a fine of up to Rs 5,000 or both.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
- The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (commonly referred to as the Senior Citizens Act) is an Indian law designed to ensure the well-being of elderly citizens.
Statement 1 is correct
- Key Provisions of the Act:
- Maintenance of Parents and Senior Citizens: Children (biological, adopted, or stepchildren) and legal heirs are obligated to provide maintenance. If a person is unable to maintain themselves, they can seek financial support from their children or relatives.
- Tribunal for Maintenance: Senior citizens can file complaints with a tribunal for maintenance if their children neglect or refuse to support them.
- The tribunal can order children to pay a monthly allowance (up to ₹10,000). The Act also provides for senior citizens/parents to appeal the decisions of the Maintenance Tribunal.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fast-track Disposal of Cases: The tribunal is required to resolve cases within 90 days.
- Protection of Senior Citizens’ Property: If a senior citizen transfers property to a relative with the condition of being cared for but is later neglected, the transfer can be legally revoked.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Old Age Homes: Directs state governments to establish and maintain old age homes in every district.
- Abandonment: Punishable with imprisonment of up to 3 months or a fine of up to Rs 5,000 or both.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
- The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 (commonly referred to as the Senior Citizens Act) is an Indian law designed to ensure the well-being of elderly citizens.
Statement 1 is correct
- Key Provisions of the Act:
- Maintenance of Parents and Senior Citizens: Children (biological, adopted, or stepchildren) and legal heirs are obligated to provide maintenance. If a person is unable to maintain themselves, they can seek financial support from their children or relatives.
- Tribunal for Maintenance: Senior citizens can file complaints with a tribunal for maintenance if their children neglect or refuse to support them.
- The tribunal can order children to pay a monthly allowance (up to ₹10,000). The Act also provides for senior citizens/parents to appeal the decisions of the Maintenance Tribunal.
Statement 2 is correct
- Fast-track Disposal of Cases: The tribunal is required to resolve cases within 90 days.
- Protection of Senior Citizens’ Property: If a senior citizen transfers property to a relative with the condition of being cared for but is later neglected, the transfer can be legally revoked.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Old Age Homes: Directs state governments to establish and maintain old age homes in every district.
- Abandonment: Punishable with imprisonment of up to 3 months or a fine of up to Rs 5,000 or both.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Prelims – PIN India} With reference to the Sentinelese, consider the following statements:
- They inhabits the North Sentinel Island, one of the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
- They numbers only about 1500 and are designated as a particularly vulnerable tribal group.
- They are characterised as hostile towards outsiders vigorously rejecting all contact with the mainland.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sentinelese are one of the last uncontacted tribes in the world inhabiting the prohibited tribal reserve area of North Sentinel Island, one of the Andaman Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Statements 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- They are believed to number only about 150 and are designated as a particularly vulnerable tribal group.
- They are a nomadic, hunter-gatherer people.
- They vigorously reject all contact with outsiders.
- They are hostile to outsiders and have killed people who approached or landed on the island.
Answer: (b) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sentinelese are one of the last uncontacted tribes in the world inhabiting the prohibited tribal reserve area of North Sentinel Island, one of the Andaman Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Statements 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- They are believed to number only about 150 and are designated as a particularly vulnerable tribal group.
- They are a nomadic, hunter-gatherer people.
- They vigorously reject all contact with outsiders.
- They are hostile to outsiders and have killed people who approached or landed on the island.
Answer: (b) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Sentinelese are one of the last uncontacted tribes in the world inhabiting the prohibited tribal reserve area of North Sentinel Island, one of the Andaman Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Statements 2 is incorrect, but statement 3 is correct
- They are believed to number only about 150 and are designated as a particularly vulnerable tribal group.
- They are a nomadic, hunter-gatherer people.
- They vigorously reject all contact with outsiders.
- They are hostile to outsiders and have killed people who approached or landed on the island.
Answer: (b) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {Geo – PG – Climatology} With reference to the Haboob dust storm, consider the following statements:
- It is an intense dust storm, forming a massive wall of dust and debris driven by strong winds.
- It is characterized by sudden onset and minimal warning, typically lasting for few minutes.
- They occurs commonly in the arid and semi-arid regions of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is incorrect
- A haboob is an intense dust storm, forming a massive wall of dust and debris driven by strong winds.
- Can grow up to 5,000 feet tall and span over 100 km in width; lasts for several hours.
- Wind Speeds: Ranges between 35–100 km/h with sudden onset and minimal warning.
- It is common in arid and semi-arid regions worldwide, particularly in the Middle East, North Africa, and the southwestern United States.
- Formation:
- Thunderstorm Downdrafts: Typically triggered by thunderstorms, strong downdrafts lift dust and sand as cold air displaces dry silt and clay in arid conditions.
- Wind Reversal: Wind shifts direction abruptly, pushing dust & debris outward; forms a rolling dust wall.
- Virga Effect: Rain evaporates before reaching the ground, cooling air further & accelerating wind speeds.
- Mud Storms: In severe cases, rain mixes with dust, leading to muddy conditions.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is incorrect
- A haboob is an intense dust storm, forming a massive wall of dust and debris driven by strong winds.
- Can grow up to 5,000 feet tall and span over 100 km in width; lasts for several hours.
- Wind Speeds: Ranges between 35–100 km/h with sudden onset and minimal warning.
- It is common in arid and semi-arid regions worldwide, particularly in the Middle East, North Africa, and the southwestern United States.
- Formation:
- Thunderstorm Downdrafts: Typically triggered by thunderstorms, strong downdrafts lift dust and sand as cold air displaces dry silt and clay in arid conditions.
- Wind Reversal: Wind shifts direction abruptly, pushing dust & debris outward; forms a rolling dust wall.
- Virga Effect: Rain evaporates before reaching the ground, cooling air further & accelerating wind speeds.
- Mud Storms: In severe cases, rain mixes with dust, leading to muddy conditions.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is incorrect
- A haboob is an intense dust storm, forming a massive wall of dust and debris driven by strong winds.
- Can grow up to 5,000 feet tall and span over 100 km in width; lasts for several hours.
- Wind Speeds: Ranges between 35–100 km/h with sudden onset and minimal warning.
- It is common in arid and semi-arid regions worldwide, particularly in the Middle East, North Africa, and the southwestern United States.
- Formation:
- Thunderstorm Downdrafts: Typically triggered by thunderstorms, strong downdrafts lift dust and sand as cold air displaces dry silt and clay in arid conditions.
- Wind Reversal: Wind shifts direction abruptly, pushing dust & debris outward; forms a rolling dust wall.
- Virga Effect: Rain evaporates before reaching the ground, cooling air further & accelerating wind speeds.
- Mud Storms: In severe cases, rain mixes with dust, leading to muddy conditions.
Answer: (c) 2 only; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {Prelims – PIN India} With respect to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, consider the following statements:
- They are southward extension of Arakan Yoma range and are a part of the Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
- The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar group in the south.
- Saddle Peak in North Andaman is the highest peak in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The major islands groups of India are Andaman and Nicobar Archipelago (A chain of islands similar in origin) in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep islands in Arabian Sea.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands were formed due to collision between Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate [part of Eurasian Plate][Similar to formation of Himalayas].
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands are southward extension of Arakan Yoma range [Myanmar][Arakan Yoma in itself is an extension of Purvanchal Hills].
- Lakshadweep Islands are coral islands. These islands are a part of Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
- Reunion Hotspot volcanism is a geological hotspot located in the Indian Ocean that has been responsible for volcanic activity, including the formation of the Mascarene Islands and the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands or Arakan Yoma ranges are not linked to Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- The Andaman islands are divided into three main islands i.e. North, Middle and South.
- Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman.
- The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar group in the south
- THE BARREN AND NARCONDAM ISLANDS, north of Port Blair, are volcanic islands [these are the only active volcanoes in India], [There are no active volcanoes in main land India].
- Saddle peak (737 m) in North Andaman is the highest peak.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The major islands groups of India are Andaman and Nicobar Archipelago (A chain of islands similar in origin) in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep islands in Arabian Sea.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands were formed due to collision between Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate [part of Eurasian Plate][Similar to formation of Himalayas].
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands are southward extension of Arakan Yoma range [Myanmar][Arakan Yoma in itself is an extension of Purvanchal Hills].
- Lakshadweep Islands are coral islands. These islands are a part of Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
- Reunion Hotspot volcanism is a geological hotspot located in the Indian Ocean that has been responsible for volcanic activity, including the formation of the Mascarene Islands and the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands or Arakan Yoma ranges are not linked to Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- The Andaman islands are divided into three main islands i.e. North, Middle and South.
- Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman.
- The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar group in the south
- THE BARREN AND NARCONDAM ISLANDS, north of Port Blair, are volcanic islands [these are the only active volcanoes in India], [There are no active volcanoes in main land India].
- Saddle peak (737 m) in North Andaman is the highest peak.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The major islands groups of India are Andaman and Nicobar Archipelago (A chain of islands similar in origin) in Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep islands in Arabian Sea.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands were formed due to collision between Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate [part of Eurasian Plate][Similar to formation of Himalayas].
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands are southward extension of Arakan Yoma range [Myanmar][Arakan Yoma in itself is an extension of Purvanchal Hills].
- Lakshadweep Islands are coral islands. These islands are a part of Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
- Reunion Hotspot volcanism is a geological hotspot located in the Indian Ocean that has been responsible for volcanic activity, including the formation of the Mascarene Islands and the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge.
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands or Arakan Yoma ranges are not linked to Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
- The Andaman islands are divided into three main islands i.e. North, Middle and South.
- Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman.
- The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar group in the south
- THE BARREN AND NARCONDAM ISLANDS, north of Port Blair, are volcanic islands [these are the only active volcanoes in India], [There are no active volcanoes in main land India].
- Saddle peak (737 m) in North Andaman is the highest peak.
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Polity – Laws} Consider the following statements regarding the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, also known as the UMEED Bill:
- The Bill allows the inclusion of non-Muslims in key waqf institutions, including the Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards.
- Senior government officers above the rank of district collectors are empowered to survey and adjudicate property disputes involving waqf and government land.
- The Bill exempts waqf properties from the provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963.
- It allows aggrieved parties to appeal waqf tribunal decisions directly to the High Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025:
- The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, renamed as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development (UMEED) Bill, has been passed in Parliament.
- Initially introduced last year, the Bill was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC).
- It seeks to amend the Waqf Act of 1995, which governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
- Key Provisions of Bill:
- Retention of ‘Waqf by user’ Properties: ‘Waqf by user” properties registered on or before the law’s commencement will retain their status unless disputed or designated as government property.
- “Waqf by user” doctrine in Islamic legal traditions recognises properties as religious or charitable endowments based on their uninterrupted communal use, even without formal documentation.
- Inclusion of ‘Non-Muslims’: The new Bill retains provisions allowing non-Muslims to be appointed to key waqf institutions, including the Central Waqf Council, State Waqf Boards, and waqf tribunals.
- It empowers the Centre to nominate 3 Members of Parliament – 2 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha to the Central Waqf Council without mandating that they be Muslims.
- Similarly, the Bill permits the appointment of a non-Muslim Chief Executive Officer and mandates that State governments appoint at least two non-Muslim members to the Waqf Boards.
- Waqf Tribunal: Each tribunal will comprise a district judge, a joint secretary-level officer from the State government, and an expert in Muslim law and jurisprudence.
- Tribunals constituted before the Act’s enactment will continue to function until the tenure of their chairperson and members expires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Surveys by Senior Government Officers: The Bill mandates that senior officers above the rank of district collectors conduct surveys, particularly in cases where government ownership is disputed.
- Bill designates these senior government officers as the final arbiters in such matters, replacing the waqf tribunals prescribed under the 1995 Act.
- It also stipulates that a disputed property cannot be classified as waqf until the officer’s final report.
- Registration Portal: The Bill mandates that all information regarding waqf properties must be uploaded to a designated portal within 6 months of the law’s enactment.
- Any new Waqf property registrations must be submitted to the respective Waqf Boards exclusively through this portal.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Application of Limitation Act: The Bill seeks to repeal Section 107 of the 1995 Act, which had rendered the Limitation Act, 1963 (1963 Act), inapplicable to waqf properties.
- The 1963 Act imposes a statutory bar on initiating legal proceedings after a prescribed period.
- Section 107 effectively exempts waqf boards from the 12-year limitation period for reclaiming encroached properties.
Statement 4 is correct
- Judicial review: The new Bill retains provisions enabling judicial intervention in waqf disputes by removing the finality of waqf tribunal decisions.
- Aggrieved parties can appeal directly to the HC within 90 days of receiving the tribunal’s order.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025:
- The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, renamed as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development (UMEED) Bill, has been passed in Parliament.
- Initially introduced last year, the Bill was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC).
- It seeks to amend the Waqf Act of 1995, which governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
- Key Provisions of Bill:
- Retention of ‘Waqf by user’ Properties: ‘Waqf by user” properties registered on or before the law’s commencement will retain their status unless disputed or designated as government property.
- “Waqf by user” doctrine in Islamic legal traditions recognises properties as religious or charitable endowments based on their uninterrupted communal use, even without formal documentation.
- Inclusion of ‘Non-Muslims’: The new Bill retains provisions allowing non-Muslims to be appointed to key waqf institutions, including the Central Waqf Council, State Waqf Boards, and waqf tribunals.
- It empowers the Centre to nominate 3 Members of Parliament – 2 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha to the Central Waqf Council without mandating that they be Muslims.
- Similarly, the Bill permits the appointment of a non-Muslim Chief Executive Officer and mandates that State governments appoint at least two non-Muslim members to the Waqf Boards.
- Waqf Tribunal: Each tribunal will comprise a district judge, a joint secretary-level officer from the State government, and an expert in Muslim law and jurisprudence.
- Tribunals constituted before the Act’s enactment will continue to function until the tenure of their chairperson and members expires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Surveys by Senior Government Officers: The Bill mandates that senior officers above the rank of district collectors conduct surveys, particularly in cases where government ownership is disputed.
- Bill designates these senior government officers as the final arbiters in such matters, replacing the waqf tribunals prescribed under the 1995 Act.
- It also stipulates that a disputed property cannot be classified as waqf until the officer’s final report.
- Registration Portal: The Bill mandates that all information regarding waqf properties must be uploaded to a designated portal within 6 months of the law’s enactment.
- Any new Waqf property registrations must be submitted to the respective Waqf Boards exclusively through this portal.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Application of Limitation Act: The Bill seeks to repeal Section 107 of the 1995 Act, which had rendered the Limitation Act, 1963 (1963 Act), inapplicable to waqf properties.
- The 1963 Act imposes a statutory bar on initiating legal proceedings after a prescribed period.
- Section 107 effectively exempts waqf boards from the 12-year limitation period for reclaiming encroached properties.
Statement 4 is correct
- Judicial review: The new Bill retains provisions enabling judicial intervention in waqf disputes by removing the finality of waqf tribunal decisions.
- Aggrieved parties can appeal directly to the HC within 90 days of receiving the tribunal’s order.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025:
- The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, renamed as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development (UMEED) Bill, has been passed in Parliament.
- Initially introduced last year, the Bill was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC).
- It seeks to amend the Waqf Act of 1995, which governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
- Key Provisions of Bill:
- Retention of ‘Waqf by user’ Properties: ‘Waqf by user” properties registered on or before the law’s commencement will retain their status unless disputed or designated as government property.
- “Waqf by user” doctrine in Islamic legal traditions recognises properties as religious or charitable endowments based on their uninterrupted communal use, even without formal documentation.
- Inclusion of ‘Non-Muslims’: The new Bill retains provisions allowing non-Muslims to be appointed to key waqf institutions, including the Central Waqf Council, State Waqf Boards, and waqf tribunals.
- It empowers the Centre to nominate 3 Members of Parliament – 2 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha to the Central Waqf Council without mandating that they be Muslims.
- Similarly, the Bill permits the appointment of a non-Muslim Chief Executive Officer and mandates that State governments appoint at least two non-Muslim members to the Waqf Boards.
- Waqf Tribunal: Each tribunal will comprise a district judge, a joint secretary-level officer from the State government, and an expert in Muslim law and jurisprudence.
- Tribunals constituted before the Act’s enactment will continue to function until the tenure of their chairperson and members expires.
Statement 2 is correct
- Surveys by Senior Government Officers: The Bill mandates that senior officers above the rank of district collectors conduct surveys, particularly in cases where government ownership is disputed.
- Bill designates these senior government officers as the final arbiters in such matters, replacing the waqf tribunals prescribed under the 1995 Act.
- It also stipulates that a disputed property cannot be classified as waqf until the officer’s final report.
- Registration Portal: The Bill mandates that all information regarding waqf properties must be uploaded to a designated portal within 6 months of the law’s enactment.
- Any new Waqf property registrations must be submitted to the respective Waqf Boards exclusively through this portal.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Application of Limitation Act: The Bill seeks to repeal Section 107 of the 1995 Act, which had rendered the Limitation Act, 1963 (1963 Act), inapplicable to waqf properties.
- The 1963 Act imposes a statutory bar on initiating legal proceedings after a prescribed period.
- Section 107 effectively exempts waqf boards from the 12-year limitation period for reclaiming encroached properties.
Statement 4 is correct
- Judicial review: The new Bill retains provisions enabling judicial intervention in waqf disputes by removing the finality of waqf tribunal decisions.
- Aggrieved parties can appeal directly to the HC within 90 days of receiving the tribunal’s order.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Medium
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