
April 04 2025 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Prelims Practice Questions (PPQs) – April 04 2025
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 7
1. Question
Q1. {IR – Groupings} How many of the following countries are the members of BIMSTEC?
- Bangladesh
- India
- Thailand
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Explanation
All are correct
- BIMSTEC is an economic bloc established in June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
- Founding members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
- Nepal joined as an observer in 1998 and later became a full member along with Bhutan in February 2004.
- The current members of BIMSTEC are: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
- The Permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- The 6th BIMSTEC summit host: Thailand.
Answer: (d) All five; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
All are correct
- BIMSTEC is an economic bloc established in June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
- Founding members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
- Nepal joined as an observer in 1998 and later became a full member along with Bhutan in February 2004.
- The current members of BIMSTEC are: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
- The Permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- The 6th BIMSTEC summit host: Thailand.
Answer: (d) All five; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
All are correct
- BIMSTEC is an economic bloc established in June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.
- Founding members: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
- Nepal joined as an observer in 1998 and later became a full member along with Bhutan in February 2004.
- The current members of BIMSTEC are: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
- The Permanent Secretariat of BIMSTEC is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- The 6th BIMSTEC summit host: Thailand.
Answer: (d) All five; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 7
2. Question
Q2. {Geo – EG – Water Resources} With reference to deep sea mining, consider the following statements:
- Deep sea mining is the process of extraction of mineral-rich nodules, sulphides, and crusts from the deep seabed below 2000 m depth.
- Richest deposits are found in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) in the northern Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Deep sea mining is the process of extraction of mineral-rich nodules, sulphides, and crusts from the deep seabed below 200m depth (covers about 2/3rd of the total seafloor).
- Resources Targeted: Elements essential for EVs, solar panels, wind turbines and electronics.
- Distribution: Richest deposits found in Clarion-Clipperton Zone (Pacific Ocean); Also located near hydrothermal vents and seamounts.
- Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ):
- CCZ, also known as Clipperton Fracture Zone, is a vast, mineral-rich geological submarine fracture zone with unique deep-sea biodiversity in the northern Pacific Ocean.
- It is being researched for deep-sea mining due to the abundant presence of manganese nodules.
- It is a habitat for cetaceans, including blue whales (EN), baleen, and toothed whales.
- and other volcanic features. They comprise cobalt, nickel, iron, manganese, and other metals.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Deep sea mining is the process of extraction of mineral-rich nodules, sulphides, and crusts from the deep seabed below 200m depth (covers about 2/3rd of the total seafloor).
- Resources Targeted: Elements essential for EVs, solar panels, wind turbines and electronics.
- Distribution: Richest deposits found in Clarion-Clipperton Zone (Pacific Ocean); Also located near hydrothermal vents and seamounts.
- Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ):
- CCZ, also known as Clipperton Fracture Zone, is a vast, mineral-rich geological submarine fracture zone with unique deep-sea biodiversity in the northern Pacific Ocean.
- It is being researched for deep-sea mining due to the abundant presence of manganese nodules.
- It is a habitat for cetaceans, including blue whales (EN), baleen, and toothed whales.
- and other volcanic features. They comprise cobalt, nickel, iron, manganese, and other metals.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect
- Deep sea mining is the process of extraction of mineral-rich nodules, sulphides, and crusts from the deep seabed below 200m depth (covers about 2/3rd of the total seafloor).
- Resources Targeted: Elements essential for EVs, solar panels, wind turbines and electronics.
- Distribution: Richest deposits found in Clarion-Clipperton Zone (Pacific Ocean); Also located near hydrothermal vents and seamounts.
- Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ):
- CCZ, also known as Clipperton Fracture Zone, is a vast, mineral-rich geological submarine fracture zone with unique deep-sea biodiversity in the northern Pacific Ocean.
- It is being researched for deep-sea mining due to the abundant presence of manganese nodules.
- It is a habitat for cetaceans, including blue whales (EN), baleen, and toothed whales.
- and other volcanic features. They comprise cobalt, nickel, iron, manganese, and other metals.
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 3 of 7
3. Question
Q3. {S&T – Space} Consider the following pairs:
Missions to Jupiter/its moons Space agency - Europa Clipper
ESA - Juno
NASA - Juice
JAXA How many of the pairs are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Pair 2 is correct
- Juno is a space probe of NASA which orbits the planet Jupiter.
- Juno’s mission aims to study Jupiter’s composition, gravitational and magnetic fields, and its polar magnetosphere. It also seeks to uncover insights into the planet’s formation, including the presence of a rocky core, the amount of water in its deep atmosphere, mass distribution, and the nature of its deep winds, which can reach speeds of up to 620 km/h (390 mph).
- Juno is the second spacecraft to enter orbit around Jupiter, following the Galileo orbiter, which operated from 1995 to 2003 using nuclear power.
Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrect
- ESA’s Juice Mission:
- Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) was launched in 2023 to study Jupiter and its moons (Ganymede, Callisto and Europa) to examine their habitability & analyse Jupiter’s magnetosphere and at-mosphere.
- NASA is partnering with ESA for the JUICE mission to provide instruments and components.
- JWST observations guide Juice’s instrument calibration and help refine its atmospheric study ap-proach.
- NASA’s Europa Clipper:
- To assess Europa’s habitability with a detailed reconnaissance of the moon’s ice shell & subsurface ocean.
- Launched by NASA on October 14, 2024.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Pair 2 is correct
- Juno is a space probe of NASA which orbits the planet Jupiter.
- Juno’s mission aims to study Jupiter’s composition, gravitational and magnetic fields, and its polar magnetosphere. It also seeks to uncover insights into the planet’s formation, including the presence of a rocky core, the amount of water in its deep atmosphere, mass distribution, and the nature of its deep winds, which can reach speeds of up to 620 km/h (390 mph).
- Juno is the second spacecraft to enter orbit around Jupiter, following the Galileo orbiter, which operated from 1995 to 2003 using nuclear power.
Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrect
- ESA’s Juice Mission:
- Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) was launched in 2023 to study Jupiter and its moons (Ganymede, Callisto and Europa) to examine their habitability & analyse Jupiter’s magnetosphere and at-mosphere.
- NASA is partnering with ESA for the JUICE mission to provide instruments and components.
- JWST observations guide Juice’s instrument calibration and help refine its atmospheric study ap-proach.
- NASA’s Europa Clipper:
- To assess Europa’s habitability with a detailed reconnaissance of the moon’s ice shell & subsurface ocean.
- Launched by NASA on October 14, 2024.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Pair 2 is correct
- Juno is a space probe of NASA which orbits the planet Jupiter.
- Juno’s mission aims to study Jupiter’s composition, gravitational and magnetic fields, and its polar magnetosphere. It also seeks to uncover insights into the planet’s formation, including the presence of a rocky core, the amount of water in its deep atmosphere, mass distribution, and the nature of its deep winds, which can reach speeds of up to 620 km/h (390 mph).
- Juno is the second spacecraft to enter orbit around Jupiter, following the Galileo orbiter, which operated from 1995 to 2003 using nuclear power.
Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrect
- ESA’s Juice Mission:
- Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice) was launched in 2023 to study Jupiter and its moons (Ganymede, Callisto and Europa) to examine their habitability & analyse Jupiter’s magnetosphere and at-mosphere.
- NASA is partnering with ESA for the JUICE mission to provide instruments and components.
- JWST observations guide Juice’s instrument calibration and help refine its atmospheric study ap-proach.
- NASA’s Europa Clipper:
- To assess Europa’s habitability with a detailed reconnaissance of the moon’s ice shell & subsurface ocean.
- Launched by NASA on October 14, 2024.
Answer: (a) Only one; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 4 of 7
4. Question
Q4. {Agri – Tech} Consider the following statements regarding farm mechanization:
- Farm mechanization includes the application of tools, equipment, and automation in processes like plowing, sowing, irrigation and harvesting but it does not include post-harvest handling.
- Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP have high mechanisation due to large farm sizes.
- About 67% of agricultural operations in India are mechanised.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Definition: Farm mechanization refers to the development and use of machines that can replace human and animal power in agricultural processes.
- It includes the application of tools, equipment, and automation in processes like plowing, sowing, irrigation, harvesting, and post-harvest handling.
Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect
- Present Status of Farm Mechanization in India:
- About 47% of agricultural operations in India are mechanised, which is lower compared to developing counterparts like China (60%) and Brazil (75%).
- In 2023, it was predicted that achieving 75–80% mechanisation in the country would take approximately 25 years.
- State-wise Variation: Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP have high mechanisation due to large farm sizes. States like Bihar, Odisha, and Northeast India have lower mechanisation.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Definition: Farm mechanization refers to the development and use of machines that can replace human and animal power in agricultural processes.
- It includes the application of tools, equipment, and automation in processes like plowing, sowing, irrigation, harvesting, and post-harvest handling.
Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect
- Present Status of Farm Mechanization in India:
- About 47% of agricultural operations in India are mechanised, which is lower compared to developing counterparts like China (60%) and Brazil (75%).
- In 2023, it was predicted that achieving 75–80% mechanisation in the country would take approximately 25 years.
- State-wise Variation: Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP have high mechanisation due to large farm sizes. States like Bihar, Odisha, and Northeast India have lower mechanisation.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Definition: Farm mechanization refers to the development and use of machines that can replace human and animal power in agricultural processes.
- It includes the application of tools, equipment, and automation in processes like plowing, sowing, irrigation, harvesting, and post-harvest handling.
Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect
- Present Status of Farm Mechanization in India:
- About 47% of agricultural operations in India are mechanised, which is lower compared to developing counterparts like China (60%) and Brazil (75%).
- In 2023, it was predicted that achieving 75–80% mechanisation in the country would take approximately 25 years.
- State-wise Variation: Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP have high mechanisation due to large farm sizes. States like Bihar, Odisha, and Northeast India have lower mechanisation.
Answer: (c) 1 and 3; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 5 of 7
5. Question
Q5. {IR – UN} Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
- It is the only UN body that has the authority to issue binding resolutions on member states.
- The UNSC consists of five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
- The non-permanent members of the UNSC are elected every two years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the UN and is considered the apex of the UN system.
- It is responsible for the maintenance of international peace and security.
- The UNSC is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions on member states.
Statement 2 is correct
- It consists of fifteen members, and each member has one vote.
- Permanent Members: Five (China, France, Russia, UK, and US) (P5).
- Non-permanent members: Ten.
- India is not a permanent member of the UNSC.
- In 2021, India was elected as a non-permanent member of the UNSC for the eighth time.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Each year, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) elects five non-permanent members by a two-thirds majority for two years on a regional basis.
- A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
- The five permanent members have veto power — opposition from any of these five Countries blocks the resolution regardless of international support.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the UN and is considered the apex of the UN system.
- It is responsible for the maintenance of international peace and security.
- The UNSC is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions on member states.
Statement 2 is correct
- It consists of fifteen members, and each member has one vote.
- Permanent Members: Five (China, France, Russia, UK, and US) (P5).
- Non-permanent members: Ten.
- India is not a permanent member of the UNSC.
- In 2021, India was elected as a non-permanent member of the UNSC for the eighth time.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Each year, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) elects five non-permanent members by a two-thirds majority for two years on a regional basis.
- A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
- The five permanent members have veto power — opposition from any of these five Countries blocks the resolution regardless of international support.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the UN and is considered the apex of the UN system.
- It is responsible for the maintenance of international peace and security.
- The UNSC is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions on member states.
Statement 2 is correct
- It consists of fifteen members, and each member has one vote.
- Permanent Members: Five (China, France, Russia, UK, and US) (P5).
- Non-permanent members: Ten.
- India is not a permanent member of the UNSC.
- In 2021, India was elected as a non-permanent member of the UNSC for the eighth time.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Each year, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) elects five non-permanent members by a two-thirds majority for two years on a regional basis.
- A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
- The five permanent members have veto power — opposition from any of these five Countries blocks the resolution regardless of international support.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 6 of 7
6. Question
Q6. {MoEF&CC – Schemes} Consider the following statements with reference to the Green Credit Program (GCP):
- Under the program, one green credit is awarded for every grown tree after two years of plantation.
- Afforestation activities must be carried out on private non-forest lands identified by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
- Green Credit Program (GCP):
- Launched in 2023 at the UN Climate Conference in Dubai as a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Notified under Green Credit Rules.
- Objective: Incentivise “pro-planet” actions aligned with Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment).
- Nodal Administrator: Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, an autonomous body under MoEFCC.
Statement 1 is correct
- Green Credit Allocation: 2 years after plantation, following evaluation by ICFRE, each planted tree will be worth one ‘green credit.’
- Green Credits: Tradable units that can be used for compliance or sustainability reporting.
- Exchange Mechanism: Credits can be traded on a domestic market platform.
- Compensatory Afforestation: Credits can be used for legal obligations like compensatory afforestation under the Forest Conservation Act.
- Corporate Environmental, Social & Governance (ESG) Compliance: Listed companies can use credits under SEBI’s Business Responsibility & Sustainability framework or to fulfill CSR requirements.
- Application Process: Individuals and companies can apply to ICFRE to pay for forest restoration.
- Density Criteria: Minimum density of 1,100 trees per hectare, with one grown tree equating to one green credit.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Identification: Forest departments of states and UTs identify land parcels like degraded land, open forests, scrublands, wastelands, and catchment areas (minimum 5 hectares). (not necessarily on private non-forest lands)
- Execution: Afforestation will be carried out by State Forest Departments.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
- Green Credit Program (GCP):
- Launched in 2023 at the UN Climate Conference in Dubai as a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Notified under Green Credit Rules.
- Objective: Incentivise “pro-planet” actions aligned with Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment).
- Nodal Administrator: Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, an autonomous body under MoEFCC.
Statement 1 is correct
- Green Credit Allocation: 2 years after plantation, following evaluation by ICFRE, each planted tree will be worth one ‘green credit.’
- Green Credits: Tradable units that can be used for compliance or sustainability reporting.
- Exchange Mechanism: Credits can be traded on a domestic market platform.
- Compensatory Afforestation: Credits can be used for legal obligations like compensatory afforestation under the Forest Conservation Act.
- Corporate Environmental, Social & Governance (ESG) Compliance: Listed companies can use credits under SEBI’s Business Responsibility & Sustainability framework or to fulfill CSR requirements.
- Application Process: Individuals and companies can apply to ICFRE to pay for forest restoration.
- Density Criteria: Minimum density of 1,100 trees per hectare, with one grown tree equating to one green credit.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Identification: Forest departments of states and UTs identify land parcels like degraded land, open forests, scrublands, wastelands, and catchment areas (minimum 5 hectares). (not necessarily on private non-forest lands)
- Execution: Afforestation will be carried out by State Forest Departments.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
- Green Credit Program (GCP):
- Launched in 2023 at the UN Climate Conference in Dubai as a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC); Notified under Green Credit Rules.
- Objective: Incentivise “pro-planet” actions aligned with Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment).
- Nodal Administrator: Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, an autonomous body under MoEFCC.
Statement 1 is correct
- Green Credit Allocation: 2 years after plantation, following evaluation by ICFRE, each planted tree will be worth one ‘green credit.’
- Green Credits: Tradable units that can be used for compliance or sustainability reporting.
- Exchange Mechanism: Credits can be traded on a domestic market platform.
- Compensatory Afforestation: Credits can be used for legal obligations like compensatory afforestation under the Forest Conservation Act.
- Corporate Environmental, Social & Governance (ESG) Compliance: Listed companies can use credits under SEBI’s Business Responsibility & Sustainability framework or to fulfill CSR requirements.
- Application Process: Individuals and companies can apply to ICFRE to pay for forest restoration.
- Density Criteria: Minimum density of 1,100 trees per hectare, with one grown tree equating to one green credit.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- Identification: Forest departments of states and UTs identify land parcels like degraded land, open forests, scrublands, wastelands, and catchment areas (minimum 5 hectares). (not necessarily on private non-forest lands)
- Execution: Afforestation will be carried out by State Forest Departments.
Answer: (a) 1 only; Difficulty Level: Easy
-
Question 7 of 7
7. Question
Q7. {Infra – Railways} India’s first Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge is located in which of the following states?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The New Pamban Bridge is a railway bridge in Tamil Nadu that will connect the town of Mandapam in mainland India with Rameswaram on Pamban Island.
- Pamban Island (Rameswaram Island) is an island located between peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
- It will replace the century-old original Pamban Bridge. It is considered an engineering marvel with the tag of becoming India’s First Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge.
- The new 2.08-kilometre-long structure stands three meters higher than the old Pamban Bridge.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The New Pamban Bridge is a railway bridge in Tamil Nadu that will connect the town of Mandapam in mainland India with Rameswaram on Pamban Island.
- Pamban Island (Rameswaram Island) is an island located between peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
- It will replace the century-old original Pamban Bridge. It is considered an engineering marvel with the tag of becoming India’s First Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge.
- The new 2.08-kilometre-long structure stands three meters higher than the old Pamban Bridge.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The New Pamban Bridge is a railway bridge in Tamil Nadu that will connect the town of Mandapam in mainland India with Rameswaram on Pamban Island.
- Pamban Island (Rameswaram Island) is an island located between peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
- It will replace the century-old original Pamban Bridge. It is considered an engineering marvel with the tag of becoming India’s First Vertical Lift Railway Sea Bridge.
- The new 2.08-kilometre-long structure stands three meters higher than the old Pamban Bridge.
Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu; Difficulty Level: Easy
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