November 09 2024 Current Affairs MCQs
[Quiz] Daily Current Affairs MCQs – November 09 2024
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These MCQs are based on PMF IAS Daily Current Affairs. The daily current affairs are uploaded every day by 8 PM. You can read the Daily Current Affairs from here. Subscribers of the “Current Affairs” course can Download Daily Current Affairs in PDF/DOC from here.
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Question 1 of 8
1. Question
Q1. {S&T – Tech} Consider the following statements regarding the differences between Laser and X-Rays:
- Lasers are light waves with visible or near-infrared wavelengths, while X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths.
- Lasers are primarily used in medical treatments and communication, whereas X-rays are used in medical imaging and security screening due to their high penetration capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both statements are correct
Aspect Laser X-ray Nature Light waves Electromagnetic radiation Wavelength Visible or near-infrared light(Low Energy) Short wavelength (high energy) Uses Medical (surgery, eye treatment), communication, cutting materials Medical imaging (CT scans), security screening, and material analysis. Penetration Limited penetration, mostly surface applications. High penetration can pass through the body and other materials. Safety Generally safe with proper precautions. It can be hazardous, and safety measures must be taken to minimize exposure. Generation Produced by stimulating emissions from atoms/molecules. Produced by accelerating electrons and hitting a metal target. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are correct
Aspect Laser X-ray Nature Light waves Electromagnetic radiation Wavelength Visible or near-infrared light(Low Energy) Short wavelength (high energy) Uses Medical (surgery, eye treatment), communication, cutting materials Medical imaging (CT scans), security screening, and material analysis. Penetration Limited penetration, mostly surface applications. High penetration can pass through the body and other materials. Safety Generally safe with proper precautions. It can be hazardous, and safety measures must be taken to minimize exposure. Generation Produced by stimulating emissions from atoms/molecules. Produced by accelerating electrons and hitting a metal target. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Both statements are correct
Aspect Laser X-ray Nature Light waves Electromagnetic radiation Wavelength Visible or near-infrared light(Low Energy) Short wavelength (high energy) Uses Medical (surgery, eye treatment), communication, cutting materials Medical imaging (CT scans), security screening, and material analysis. Penetration Limited penetration, mostly surface applications. High penetration can pass through the body and other materials. Safety Generally safe with proper precautions. It can be hazardous, and safety measures must be taken to minimize exposure. Generation Produced by stimulating emissions from atoms/molecules. Produced by accelerating electrons and hitting a metal target. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 2 of 8
2. Question
Q2. {S&T – Defence} Which initiative, launched by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), aims to conserve and promote India’s military heritage through education and tourism?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) launches Project Shaurya Gatha.
- It is an initiative of the Department of Military Affairs and the United Service Institution (USI) of India.
- It aims to conserve and promote India’s military heritage through education and tourism.
Answer: (b) Project Shaurya Gatha; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) launches Project Shaurya Gatha.
- It is an initiative of the Department of Military Affairs and the United Service Institution (USI) of India.
- It aims to conserve and promote India’s military heritage through education and tourism.
Answer: (b) Project Shaurya Gatha; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is correct
- The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) launches Project Shaurya Gatha.
- It is an initiative of the Department of Military Affairs and the United Service Institution (USI) of India.
- It aims to conserve and promote India’s military heritage through education and tourism.
Answer: (b) Project Shaurya Gatha; Difficulty Level: Easy
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Question 3 of 8
3. Question
Q3. {S&T – Defence} Which of the following statements regarding the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) in India is not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Option (b) is incorrect
- In the Department of Defence, the CDS is the highest-ranking officer and has the rank of Secretary. His authority is limited solely to the revenue budget.
- CDS is described as the ‘first among equals’ among the service chiefs. They are responsible for enhancing unity, coordination, and joint operations among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- In 2001, following the Kargil Review Committee (1999) report, a Group of Ministers (GoM) suggested creating the CDS position.
- The CDS position was officially established in January 2020, following years of defence reform recommendations.
- The CDS head of the Department of Military Affairs. It will act as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-services matters. They will also be the military adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority (chaired by the Prime Minister).
- The CDS will be the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).
- CDS will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council, which is chaired by the Minister of Defence, and the Defence Planning Committee, which is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
- CDS has the authority to create theatre commands as and when needed.
Answer: (b) The CDS position was officially established following the Kargil Review Committee’s recommendations in 2001; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (b) is incorrect
- In the Department of Defence, the CDS is the highest-ranking officer and has the rank of Secretary. His authority is limited solely to the revenue budget.
- CDS is described as the ‘first among equals’ among the service chiefs. They are responsible for enhancing unity, coordination, and joint operations among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- In 2001, following the Kargil Review Committee (1999) report, a Group of Ministers (GoM) suggested creating the CDS position.
- The CDS position was officially established in January 2020, following years of defence reform recommendations.
- The CDS head of the Department of Military Affairs. It will act as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-services matters. They will also be the military adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority (chaired by the Prime Minister).
- The CDS will be the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).
- CDS will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council, which is chaired by the Minister of Defence, and the Defence Planning Committee, which is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
- CDS has the authority to create theatre commands as and when needed.
Answer: (b) The CDS position was officially established following the Kargil Review Committee’s recommendations in 2001; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (b) is incorrect
- In the Department of Defence, the CDS is the highest-ranking officer and has the rank of Secretary. His authority is limited solely to the revenue budget.
- CDS is described as the ‘first among equals’ among the service chiefs. They are responsible for enhancing unity, coordination, and joint operations among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
- In 2001, following the Kargil Review Committee (1999) report, a Group of Ministers (GoM) suggested creating the CDS position.
- The CDS position was officially established in January 2020, following years of defence reform recommendations.
- The CDS head of the Department of Military Affairs. It will act as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-services matters. They will also be the military adviser to the Nuclear Command Authority (chaired by the Prime Minister).
- The CDS will be the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).
- CDS will be a member of the Defence Acquisition Council, which is chaired by the Minister of Defence, and the Defence Planning Committee, which is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
- CDS has the authority to create theatre commands as and when needed.
Answer: (b) The CDS position was officially established following the Kargil Review Committee’s recommendations in 2001; Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 4 of 8
4. Question
Q4. {IE – Industry} Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI). Which of the statements given below are not correct?
- CPI data is typically reported on a voluntary basis.
- CPI for Agricultural and Rural Laborers is the primary measure of inflation for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- CPI focuses on retail prices and includes intermediate goods.
- CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) is published by the Central Statistics Office, with a base year of 2012.
- The Food and Beverages category accounts for more than 50% of the weightage in CPI Combined.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Consumer Price Index (CPI) tracks retail price changes in goods and services, serving as a key indicator for inflation and cost of living adjustments.
- CPI data is actively collected by market investigators.
- CPI Combined (Rural + Urban) is the primary inflation measure for RBI.
- CPI focuses on retail prices and final consumer goods.
- CPI for Industrial Workers (IW): Compiled by the Labor Bureau under the Ministry of Labor and Employment (MoLE), with the base year of 2011; targets price fluctuations affecting industrial workers.
- CPI for Agricultural and Rural Laborers (AL and RL): Also compiled by MoLE, with a base year of 1986-87, tracking price changes in rural and agricultural sectors.
- CPI (Rural, Urban, and Combined): Published by the Central Statistics Office, under MoSPI, with a base year of 2012.
- Weight Distribution in CPI Combined:
- Food and Beverages: 45.86% (not more than 50%)
- Miscellaneous: 28.32%
- Housing: 10.07%
- Fuel and Light: 6.84%
- Clothing and Footwear: 6.53%
- Pan, Tobacco, and Intoxicants: 2.38%
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Consumer Price Index (CPI) tracks retail price changes in goods and services, serving as a key indicator for inflation and cost of living adjustments.
- CPI data is actively collected by market investigators.
- CPI Combined (Rural + Urban) is the primary inflation measure for RBI.
- CPI focuses on retail prices and final consumer goods.
- CPI for Industrial Workers (IW): Compiled by the Labor Bureau under the Ministry of Labor and Employment (MoLE), with the base year of 2011; targets price fluctuations affecting industrial workers.
- CPI for Agricultural and Rural Laborers (AL and RL): Also compiled by MoLE, with a base year of 1986-87, tracking price changes in rural and agricultural sectors.
- CPI (Rural, Urban, and Combined): Published by the Central Statistics Office, under MoSPI, with a base year of 2012.
- Weight Distribution in CPI Combined:
- Food and Beverages: 45.86% (not more than 50%)
- Miscellaneous: 28.32%
- Housing: 10.07%
- Fuel and Light: 6.84%
- Clothing and Footwear: 6.53%
- Pan, Tobacco, and Intoxicants: 2.38%
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
All statements are incorrect
- Consumer Price Index (CPI) tracks retail price changes in goods and services, serving as a key indicator for inflation and cost of living adjustments.
- CPI data is actively collected by market investigators.
- CPI Combined (Rural + Urban) is the primary inflation measure for RBI.
- CPI focuses on retail prices and final consumer goods.
- CPI for Industrial Workers (IW): Compiled by the Labor Bureau under the Ministry of Labor and Employment (MoLE), with the base year of 2011; targets price fluctuations affecting industrial workers.
- CPI for Agricultural and Rural Laborers (AL and RL): Also compiled by MoLE, with a base year of 1986-87, tracking price changes in rural and agricultural sectors.
- CPI (Rural, Urban, and Combined): Published by the Central Statistics Office, under MoSPI, with a base year of 2012.
- Weight Distribution in CPI Combined:
- Food and Beverages: 45.86% (not more than 50%)
- Miscellaneous: 28.32%
- Housing: 10.07%
- Fuel and Light: 6.84%
- Clothing and Footwear: 6.53%
- Pan, Tobacco, and Intoxicants: 2.38%
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5; Difficulty Level: Hard
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Question 5 of 8
5. Question
Q5. {Social Sector – Health} Under the Ayushman Bharat Mission’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) guidelines, who is responsible for providing preventive, promotive, and follow-up care at health sub-centers in rural areas?
Correct
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The Ayushman Bharat Mission’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) guidelines provide for the deployment of Community Health Officers (CHOs) at health sub-centers, focusing on preven-tive, promotive, and follow-up care while coordinating with ASHA workers and ANMs.
Answer: (a) Community Health Officers (CHOs); Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The Ayushman Bharat Mission’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) guidelines provide for the deployment of Community Health Officers (CHOs) at health sub-centers, focusing on preven-tive, promotive, and follow-up care while coordinating with ASHA workers and ANMs.
Answer: (a) Community Health Officers (CHOs); Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Option (a) is correct
- The Ayushman Bharat Mission’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) guidelines provide for the deployment of Community Health Officers (CHOs) at health sub-centers, focusing on preven-tive, promotive, and follow-up care while coordinating with ASHA workers and ANMs.
Answer: (a) Community Health Officers (CHOs); Difficulty Level: Medium
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Question 6 of 8
6. Question
Q6. {Social Sector – Health} With reference to initiatives to address Snakebite Envenoming (SE), consider the following statements:
- Snakebite Envenoming is classified by the WHO as a high-priority Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD).
- Snakebite Envenoming is only caused by the venom injected by venomous snakes.
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’s National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAP-SE) aims to reduce snakebite-related deaths and disabilities by 2030.
- The global antivenom stockpile project is being implemented to address the shortage of antivenom supplies worldwide.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SE is classified by the WHO as a high-priority Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD).
- Symptoms: Tissue damage, bleeding disorders, kidney failure, paralysis. It can result in long-term complications such as deformities, visual impairment, renal complications and psychological distress.
- According to the Central Bureau of Health Investigation (CBHI) reports (2016-2020), India witnesses an average of 3 lakh snakebite cases annually, resulting in approximately 2,000 deaths per year.
- Around 90% of snake bites in India are caused by the ‘big four’ among the crawlers – common krait, Indian cobra, Russell’s viper and saw-scaled viper.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- SE is a potentially life-threatening disease that typically results from the injection of a mixture of different toxins (venom) following the bite of a Venomous Snake.
- It can also be caused by having venom sprayed into the eyes by certain species of snakes that can spit venom as a defence measure.
Statement 3 is correct
- Indian Initiatives:
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAP-SE) under the ‘One Health’ approach.
- It aims to halve the number of deaths and cases of disability caused by snakebite by 2030.
- In alignment with WHO’s Snakebite Envenoming Strategy and the United Nations’ Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, India ratified a National Action Plan to combat Snakebite Envenoming.
Statement 4 is correct
- Global Initiatives:
- The WHO has recognised snakebite as a global public health issue and launched a strategy to reduce snakebite-induced deaths and disabilities worldwide.
- A global antivenom stockpile pilot project is underway to address shortages and ensure timely antivenom availability.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SE is classified by the WHO as a high-priority Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD).
- Symptoms: Tissue damage, bleeding disorders, kidney failure, paralysis. It can result in long-term complications such as deformities, visual impairment, renal complications and psychological distress.
- According to the Central Bureau of Health Investigation (CBHI) reports (2016-2020), India witnesses an average of 3 lakh snakebite cases annually, resulting in approximately 2,000 deaths per year.
- Around 90% of snake bites in India are caused by the ‘big four’ among the crawlers – common krait, Indian cobra, Russell’s viper and saw-scaled viper.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- SE is a potentially life-threatening disease that typically results from the injection of a mixture of different toxins (venom) following the bite of a Venomous Snake.
- It can also be caused by having venom sprayed into the eyes by certain species of snakes that can spit venom as a defence measure.
Statement 3 is correct
- Indian Initiatives:
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAP-SE) under the ‘One Health’ approach.
- It aims to halve the number of deaths and cases of disability caused by snakebite by 2030.
- In alignment with WHO’s Snakebite Envenoming Strategy and the United Nations’ Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, India ratified a National Action Plan to combat Snakebite Envenoming.
Statement 4 is correct
- Global Initiatives:
- The WHO has recognised snakebite as a global public health issue and launched a strategy to reduce snakebite-induced deaths and disabilities worldwide.
- A global antivenom stockpile pilot project is underway to address shortages and ensure timely antivenom availability.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct
- SE is classified by the WHO as a high-priority Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD).
- Symptoms: Tissue damage, bleeding disorders, kidney failure, paralysis. It can result in long-term complications such as deformities, visual impairment, renal complications and psychological distress.
- According to the Central Bureau of Health Investigation (CBHI) reports (2016-2020), India witnesses an average of 3 lakh snakebite cases annually, resulting in approximately 2,000 deaths per year.
- Around 90% of snake bites in India are caused by the ‘big four’ among the crawlers – common krait, Indian cobra, Russell’s viper and saw-scaled viper.
Statement 2 is incorrect
- SE is a potentially life-threatening disease that typically results from the injection of a mixture of different toxins (venom) following the bite of a Venomous Snake.
- It can also be caused by having venom sprayed into the eyes by certain species of snakes that can spit venom as a defence measure.
Statement 3 is correct
- Indian Initiatives:
- The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAP-SE) under the ‘One Health’ approach.
- It aims to halve the number of deaths and cases of disability caused by snakebite by 2030.
- In alignment with WHO’s Snakebite Envenoming Strategy and the United Nations’ Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, India ratified a National Action Plan to combat Snakebite Envenoming.
Statement 4 is correct
- Global Initiatives:
- The WHO has recognised snakebite as a global public health issue and launched a strategy to reduce snakebite-induced deaths and disabilities worldwide.
- A global antivenom stockpile pilot project is underway to address shortages and ensure timely antivenom availability.
Answer: (c) Only three; Difficulty Level: Hard
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Question 7 of 8
7. Question
Q7. {Agri – Crops} Consider the following statements about the de-branning of millets:
- De-branning of millets improves their nutritional value by retaining more essential nutrients and fiber.
- De-branning extends the shelf life of millets.
- The removal of bran from millets lowers their glycemic load, making them more suitable for diabetic individuals.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Bran is the edible outer layer of cereal grains, rich in dietary fiber and bioactive compounds.
- It contributes to overall health by providing essential nutrients and aiding digestion.
- Removing bran from millets (de-branning) lowers the nutritional profile, including the loss of minerals, fiber and beneficial phytochemicals.
Statement 2 is correct
- Shelf Life: De-branning extends the shelf life of millets by removing bran, which contains fats that can spoil more quickly.
- Cooking Convenience: Polished millets cook faster and are softer, reducing cooking time.
- Market Preferences: Highly polished millets are more appealing due to their texture and appearance, but they are nutritionally inferior.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Increased Glycemic Load: Removal of bran increases carbohydrates and amylose, leading to a higher glycemic index, making de-branned millets unsuitable for diabetic individuals.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Bran is the edible outer layer of cereal grains, rich in dietary fiber and bioactive compounds.
- It contributes to overall health by providing essential nutrients and aiding digestion.
- Removing bran from millets (de-branning) lowers the nutritional profile, including the loss of minerals, fiber and beneficial phytochemicals.
Statement 2 is correct
- Shelf Life: De-branning extends the shelf life of millets by removing bran, which contains fats that can spoil more quickly.
- Cooking Convenience: Polished millets cook faster and are softer, reducing cooking time.
- Market Preferences: Highly polished millets are more appealing due to their texture and appearance, but they are nutritionally inferior.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Increased Glycemic Load: Removal of bran increases carbohydrates and amylose, leading to a higher glycemic index, making de-branned millets unsuitable for diabetic individuals.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
Unattempted
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Bran is the edible outer layer of cereal grains, rich in dietary fiber and bioactive compounds.
- It contributes to overall health by providing essential nutrients and aiding digestion.
- Removing bran from millets (de-branning) lowers the nutritional profile, including the loss of minerals, fiber and beneficial phytochemicals.
Statement 2 is correct
- Shelf Life: De-branning extends the shelf life of millets by removing bran, which contains fats that can spoil more quickly.
- Cooking Convenience: Polished millets cook faster and are softer, reducing cooking time.
- Market Preferences: Highly polished millets are more appealing due to their texture and appearance, but they are nutritionally inferior.
Statement 3 is incorrect
- Increased Glycemic Load: Removal of bran increases carbohydrates and amylose, leading to a higher glycemic index, making de-branned millets unsuitable for diabetic individuals.
Answer: (b) Only two; Difficulty Level: Medium
-
Question 8 of 8
8. Question
Q8. {Social Sector – Health} With reference to the Scheme for Strengthening the Medical Device Industry, consider the following statements:
- The scheme aims to promote local production to reduce dependence on imports of raw materials and components for medical device manufacturing.
- The scheme also offers financial assistance to industry associations for organizing events and conducting research in the medical device sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Explanation
Both statements are correct
- Union Minister launched the Scheme for Strengthening the Medical Device Industry.
- The scheme targets critical areas of the medical device industry, covering the manufacturing of key components and accessories, skill development, support for clinical studies, etc.
- Features of the Five Sub – Scheme:
- Common Facilities for Medical Devices Clusters: It aims to build infrastructure within medical device clusters by developing shared facilities like R&D labs, design and testing centres, animal testing labs.
- Marginal Investment Scheme for Reducing Import Dependence: It promotes localised production, reducing reliance on imported raw materials and key components for medical device manufacturing.
- Capacity Building and Skill Development for Medical Devices: It enhances the skilled technical workforce by providing financial support for courses and training programs for medical devices.
- Medical Device Clinical Studies Support Scheme: It facilitates financial assistance for clinical studies, including animal testing, human trials, and clinical performance assessments.
- Medical Device Promotion Scheme: It assists industry associations and export councils in promoting the sector by organising conferences and conducting studies and surveys.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are correct
- Union Minister launched the Scheme for Strengthening the Medical Device Industry.
- The scheme targets critical areas of the medical device industry, covering the manufacturing of key components and accessories, skill development, support for clinical studies, etc.
- Features of the Five Sub – Scheme:
- Common Facilities for Medical Devices Clusters: It aims to build infrastructure within medical device clusters by developing shared facilities like R&D labs, design and testing centres, animal testing labs.
- Marginal Investment Scheme for Reducing Import Dependence: It promotes localised production, reducing reliance on imported raw materials and key components for medical device manufacturing.
- Capacity Building and Skill Development for Medical Devices: It enhances the skilled technical workforce by providing financial support for courses and training programs for medical devices.
- Medical Device Clinical Studies Support Scheme: It facilitates financial assistance for clinical studies, including animal testing, human trials, and clinical performance assessments.
- Medical Device Promotion Scheme: It assists industry associations and export councils in promoting the sector by organising conferences and conducting studies and surveys.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
Unattempted
Explanation
Both statements are correct
- Union Minister launched the Scheme for Strengthening the Medical Device Industry.
- The scheme targets critical areas of the medical device industry, covering the manufacturing of key components and accessories, skill development, support for clinical studies, etc.
- Features of the Five Sub – Scheme:
- Common Facilities for Medical Devices Clusters: It aims to build infrastructure within medical device clusters by developing shared facilities like R&D labs, design and testing centres, animal testing labs.
- Marginal Investment Scheme for Reducing Import Dependence: It promotes localised production, reducing reliance on imported raw materials and key components for medical device manufacturing.
- Capacity Building and Skill Development for Medical Devices: It enhances the skilled technical workforce by providing financial support for courses and training programs for medical devices.
- Medical Device Clinical Studies Support Scheme: It facilitates financial assistance for clinical studies, including animal testing, human trials, and clinical performance assessments.
- Medical Device Promotion Scheme: It assists industry associations and export councils in promoting the sector by organising conferences and conducting studies and surveys.
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2; Difficulty Level: Easy
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